The Bible Is Evidence

View attachment 338951

May 20 (6 hours ago)​

The bible is evidence. It is witness testimony and in most cases, we know who wrote it. Shall we ignore evidence because the witness has died? How foolish! Using that standard, we would discard completely most libraries. All our history books would be rendered useless, as would most of our science books and math books. Isaac Newton is dead. Shall we therefore discard what he wrote?
Galileo is dead. Shall we therefore discard what he wrote?
Clarence Darrow is past on. Shall we discard what he wrote? How about Supreme Ct Justice Oliver Wendell Holmes?

Shall we discard the Gettysburg Address because Abe Lincoln is dead?
How about the Founding Fathers? Is our Constitution useless because they are all deceased?

The Rules of evidence in all 50 states allow the introduction of witness testimony. Of course, it is always wise to verify evidence with other testimony or cross examination, but that still leaves the original testimony for consideration by the judge or jury.

We can verify evidence by examining the lives of the speaker to evaluate his credibility and this is useful for the bible. Was Moses an honest man? Were the apostles honest men? How about Matthew, John and Paul?
Bible evidence: And a snake spoke to Eve. Que the belly-laughs.
Bible evidence: And a burning bush spoke to Moses. Que the belly-laughs.
Bible evidence: And Noah not only built an Ark, but put two of every kind of animal in the world in it and of course, the entire world was covered in an ocean after forty days of rain. Que the belly-laughs.
Bible evidence: And blaring trumpets brought down the stone walls of Jericho (some seriously bad construction techniques). Que the belly-laughs.
Bible evidence: And Moses separated the Red Sea and drowned the Pharaoh and his army (all the Pharaoh's deaths were recorded by the Egyptian scribes and none drowned in the Red Sea. Que the belly-laughs.
The only actual things listed in the Bible that were verifiable and logical, were some of the battles that did occur, as well as some of the cities that were listed.
The Bible: Que the belly-laughs.

Do you have a preference as to which point you wish me to address first?

For now, the flood. Have you made any attempt to harmonize Biblical interpretation with scientific interpretation. Or are you biased against the Bible?

The 'rain' was not due to the current water cycle - it was the falling of the upper waters of Genesis 1:6-8 - see the separate thread on these verses. And you missed a detail in the Genesis account of the flood: 2 of each clean animal but 7 of each clean kind of animal.

There is mammoth evidence for the flood (pun intended) - would you like me to post some of this evidence?
 
OK, since none of you understand the scientific reason for Solomon being inspired to write concerning earth's wind cycles going North and South but not east and west - I will help you all since I am a student of earth science and meteorology. First, the verse again (v. 7 describes the current water cycle):

Ecclesiastes 1:6
The wind* is going to the south, and it is circling around to the north.+ Round and round it* is continually circling,+ and right back to its circlings+ the wind* is returning.

The simple answer is that while earth's horizontal wind cycles go North, East, South, west yet earth's vertical wind cycles go North down South up - depending on which Hadley cell you are referring to. I mentioned Hadley cells - but none of you researched this.

I'll give you all a second chance to research this on your own.
 
Ha Shev - is there some reason you are not citing chapter and verse? You want us to actually do the research? That is a good thing - but you have failed to note my research from the Jewish Encyclopedia in my above posts.

Matthew was quoting from the Greek Septuagint - which is a Jewish translation. The Jewish translators understood almah (young maiden) to mean parthenos (virgin) in that verse. Many Jews at Matthew's time spoke koine Greek - that's why the Greek LXX was translated from the Hebrew.

See our Bible dictionary here:


Excerpt:

"Some have suggested that in the type back there “Immanuel” was a third son of Isaiah, perhaps by a Jewish maiden who may have become a second wife of the prophet. Certain Jewish commentators endeavored to apply the prophecy to the birth of Ahaz’ son Hezekiah. This, however, is ruled out, since the prophecy was uttered during Ahaz’ reign (Isa 7:1), making Hezekiah at least nine years old at the time.—2Ki 16:2; 18:1, 2.

Another possible candidate was Isaiah’s second son, mentioned in the next chapter, Maher-shalal-hash-baz, concerning whom it was said: “Before the boy will know how to call out, ‘My father!’ and ‘My mother!’ one will carry away the resources of Damascus and the spoil of Samaria before the king of Assyria.” (Isa 8:1-4) Certainly this echoes what was said about Immanuel: “Before the boy will know how to reject the bad and choose the good, the ground of whose two kings [of Damascus and Samaria] you are feeling a sickening dread will be left entirely.” (Isa 7:16) Also, the birth of Isaiah’s second son is presented in close connection with the further prophecy involving Immanuel and, as Immanuel was to be a “sign,” so also Isaiah said: “I and the children whom Jehovah has given me are as signs.”Isa 7:14; 8:18.

The principal objection to this identification of Isaiah’s second son as the Immanuel of Ahaz’ day is on the grounds that Isaiah’s wife is spoken of as “the prophetess,” not as “the maiden,” as well as the fact that she was already the mother of Isaiah’s firstborn, Shear-jashub, hence no “maiden.” (Isa 7:3; 8:3) It may be noted, however, that the Hebrew word here translated “maiden” is not bethu·lahʹ, meaning, specifically, “virgin,” but is ʽal·mahʹ, having a broader reference to a young woman, who could be either a virgin maiden or a recently married woman. ʽAl·mahʹ as a common noun also occurs in six other texts, more than one of which specifically involves virgin maidens.—Ge 24:43 (compare vs 16); Ex 2:8; Ps 68:25; Pr 30:19; Ca 1:3; 6:8." [Ca is the Song of Solomon about the Shulahmite maiden who was a virgin]

Our dictionary goes on to explain that Mathew at Mt.1:22,23 was quoting the Jewish Greek LXX for Isaiah 7:14 which translates Hebrew almah as Greek parthenos. In my next post I will document that:
That question is an outright lie, otherwise you'd post what you saw that needed the source and would not avoid my post with such an ad hominem response.
Context context context Isaiah 7-9 is the era of the war with Assyria not a future tense outside historical events of their era.
You avoided the topic & the fact that this is evidence regarding the writer of Matthew not being a Jew who would know this context and not need to selectively take it out of context for sake of "fake news".
Lastly, you can't use Isaiah Sheva (7) against me and discuss the son.
Isaiah 7:3 the son Isaiah is refering to is named Shear ‘Yshv’ (proper transliteration (pronounced hashev=return because Y=H sound) Shear ‘Yshv’ means a remnant shall ‘return’ (HaShev).
If they want to fallaciously claim This son holds the name of Moshiach then to bad that name is HaShev and not Jesus.
-checkmate
I'll take that house you JW's set aside for me now, oh yeah you guys sold it, because you really had no faith in what you teach and the money was more important than redemtion (HaShev).

I'll make this simple for you HaShev:

Matthew quoted the Greek Septuagint translation of Isaiah 7:14 in Matthew 1:22,23. The Greek Septuagint translates Hebrew almah as Greek parthenos/virgin. The Septuagint is a Jewish translation. This is therefore evidence Matthew was Jewish.

Note also that Matthew recorded Jesus stating the greatest commandment in the Bible is to love Jehovah with all our heart, soul and strength - see Matthew 22:37-40. Mark records more detail, to wit:

Mark 12:28-34
One of the scribes who had come up and heard them disputing, knowing that he had answered them in a fine way, asked him: “Which commandment is first* of all?”+ 29 Jesus answered: “The first is, ‘Hear, O Israel, Jehovah our God is one Jehovah, 30 and you must love Jehovah your God with your whole heart and with your whole soul and with your whole mind and with your whole strength.’+ 31 The second is this, ‘You must love your neighbor as yourself.’+ There is no other commandment greater than these.” 32 The scribe said to him: “Teacher, you spoke well, in line with truth, ‘He is One, and there is no other besides him’;+ 33 and to love him with one’s whole heart, with one’s whole understanding, and with one’s whole strength and to love one’s neighbor as oneself is worth far more than all the whole burnt offerings and sacrifices.”+ 34 At this Jesus, discerning that he had answered intelligently, said to him: “You are not far from the Kingdom of God.” But no one had the courage to question him anymore.+

Quoting accurately Deuteronomy 6:4,5 where the Divine Name appears 3 times:

Deuteronomy 6:4,5
“Listen, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah.+ 5 You must love Jehovah your God with all your heart and all your soul*+ and all your strength.*+

This confirms Matthew, Mark and Jesus were Jewish. This is the beginning of the Jewish Shema right?

Note also that Jesus agreed Jehovah is ONE. This confirms Jesus, like the Jews, believed Jehovah is one not a trinity.
You keep making the same mistakes, you've yet to tell us which historical figure you call Jesus and your apostles cover 2-3 eras and christs. You would have answered those simple questions, but you know it proves my point, that your Jesus is not the Biblical Michael HaMoshiach. And is not based on a singular historical figure in a singular era with a singular profession, age of death, hometown etc.
You know very well that if you answer my Question it restricts you to one figure and Jesus story is of the many more figures that will prove you deceived by an image not a real historical character. As you brought up Origen already has done.

Now, why can you remember the name of your first pet, your first car and first crush, but you can't remember "the name" (HaShem) of your christ figure?
 
Ha Shev - is there some reason you are not citing chapter and verse? You want us to actually do the research? That is a good thing - but you have failed to note my research from the Jewish Encyclopedia in my above posts.

Matthew was quoting from the Greek Septuagint - which is a Jewish translation. The Jewish translators understood almah (young maiden) to mean parthenos (virgin) in that verse. Many Jews at Matthew's time spoke koine Greek - that's why the Greek LXX was translated from the Hebrew.

See our Bible dictionary here:


Excerpt:

"Some have suggested that in the type back there “Immanuel” was a third son of Isaiah, perhaps by a Jewish maiden who may have become a second wife of the prophet. Certain Jewish commentators endeavored to apply the prophecy to the birth of Ahaz’ son Hezekiah. This, however, is ruled out, since the prophecy was uttered during Ahaz’ reign (Isa 7:1), making Hezekiah at least nine years old at the time.—2Ki 16:2; 18:1, 2.

Another possible candidate was Isaiah’s second son, mentioned in the next chapter, Maher-shalal-hash-baz, concerning whom it was said: “Before the boy will know how to call out, ‘My father!’ and ‘My mother!’ one will carry away the resources of Damascus and the spoil of Samaria before the king of Assyria.” (Isa 8:1-4) Certainly this echoes what was said about Immanuel: “Before the boy will know how to reject the bad and choose the good, the ground of whose two kings [of Damascus and Samaria] you are feeling a sickening dread will be left entirely.” (Isa 7:16) Also, the birth of Isaiah’s second son is presented in close connection with the further prophecy involving Immanuel and, as Immanuel was to be a “sign,” so also Isaiah said: “I and the children whom Jehovah has given me are as signs.”Isa 7:14; 8:18.

The principal objection to this identification of Isaiah’s second son as the Immanuel of Ahaz’ day is on the grounds that Isaiah’s wife is spoken of as “the prophetess,” not as “the maiden,” as well as the fact that she was already the mother of Isaiah’s firstborn, Shear-jashub, hence no “maiden.” (Isa 7:3; 8:3) It may be noted, however, that the Hebrew word here translated “maiden” is not bethu·lahʹ, meaning, specifically, “virgin,” but is ʽal·mahʹ, having a broader reference to a young woman, who could be either a virgin maiden or a recently married woman. ʽAl·mahʹ as a common noun also occurs in six other texts, more than one of which specifically involves virgin maidens.—Ge 24:43 (compare vs 16); Ex 2:8; Ps 68:25; Pr 30:19; Ca 1:3; 6:8." [Ca is the Song of Solomon about the Shulahmite maiden who was a virgin]

Our dictionary goes on to explain that Mathew at Mt.1:22,23 was quoting the Jewish Greek LXX for Isaiah 7:14 which translates Hebrew almah as Greek parthenos. In my next post I will document that:
That question is an outright lie, otherwise you'd post what you saw that needed the source and would not avoid my post with such an ad hominem response.
Context context context Isaiah 7-9 is the era of the war with Assyria not a future tense outside historical events of their era.
You avoided the topic & the fact that this is evidence regarding the writer of Matthew not being a Jew who would know this context and not need to selectively take it out of context for sake of "fake news".
Lastly, you can't use Isaiah Sheva (7) against me and discuss the son.
Isaiah 7:3 the son Isaiah is refering to is named Shear ‘Yshv’ (proper transliteration (pronounced hashev=return because Y=H sound) Shear ‘Yshv’ means a remnant shall ‘return’ (HaShev).
If they want to fallaciously claim This son holds the name of Moshiach then to bad that name is HaShev and not Jesus.
-checkmate
I'll take that house you JW's set aside for me now, oh yeah you guys sold it, because you really had no faith in what you teach and the money was more important than redemtion (HaShev).

I'll make this simple for you HaShev:

Matthew quoted the Greek Septuagint translation of Isaiah 7:14 in Matthew 1:22,23. The Greek Septuagint translates Hebrew almah as Greek parthenos/virgin. The Septuagint is a Jewish translation. This is therefore evidence Matthew was Jewish.

Note also that Matthew recorded Jesus stating the greatest commandment in the Bible is to love Jehovah with all our heart, soul and strength - see Matthew 22:37-40. Mark records more detail, to wit:

Mark 12:28-34
One of the scribes who had come up and heard them disputing, knowing that he had answered them in a fine way, asked him: “Which commandment is first* of all?”+ 29 Jesus answered: “The first is, ‘Hear, O Israel, Jehovah our God is one Jehovah, 30 and you must love Jehovah your God with your whole heart and with your whole soul and with your whole mind and with your whole strength.’+ 31 The second is this, ‘You must love your neighbor as yourself.’+ There is no other commandment greater than these.” 32 The scribe said to him: “Teacher, you spoke well, in line with truth, ‘He is One, and there is no other besides him’;+ 33 and to love him with one’s whole heart, with one’s whole understanding, and with one’s whole strength and to love one’s neighbor as oneself is worth far more than all the whole burnt offerings and sacrifices.”+ 34 At this Jesus, discerning that he had answered intelligently, said to him: “You are not far from the Kingdom of God.” But no one had the courage to question him anymore.+

Quoting accurately Deuteronomy 6:4,5 where the Divine Name appears 3 times:

Deuteronomy 6:4,5
“Listen, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah.+ 5 You must love Jehovah your God with all your heart and all your soul*+ and all your strength.*+

This confirms Matthew, Mark and Jesus were Jewish. This is the beginning of the Jewish Shema right?

Note also that Jesus agreed Jehovah is ONE. This confirms Jesus, like the Jews, believed Jehovah is one not a trinity.
You keep making the same mistakes, you've yet to tell us which historical figure you call Jesus and your apostles cover 2-3 eras and christs. You would have answered those simple questions, but you know it proves my point, that your Jesus is not the Biblical Michael HaMoshiach. And is not based on a singular historical figure in a singular era with a singular profession, age of death, hometown etc.
You know very well that if you answer my Question it restricts you to one figure and Jesus story is of the many more figures that will prove you deceived by an image not a real historical character. As you brought up Origen already has done.

Now, why can you remember the name of your first pet, your first car and first crush, but you can't remember "the name" (HaShem) of your christ figure?

And why do you keep changing the subject? Also, why do you post your opinions with no documentation to back you up? Finallly - why do you keep ignoring the evidence I posted such as from the Jewish Encyclopedia. See my posts 41,44 for example.

Do you have a problem with posting links?
 
OK, back to the Bible as evidence that the author is Jehovah, not humans. No human knew about earth's vertical wind cycles which go North and South as Solomon correctly states of all of earth's wind circlings at Ecclesiastes 1:6. Solomon did know that winds can also be east and west but he was inspired by Jehovah to just refer to North and South so we could scientifically research the point and have the joy of discovery, And what has been discovered? I referenced Hadley cells.

From google search:


plural noun: Hadley cells
  1. a large-scale atmospheric convection cell in which air rises at the equator and sinks at medium latitudes, typically about 30° north or south.
Note the definition shows these wind circlings go North and South in harmony with Eccl.1:6!

Of course, there are more vertical wind circlings besides the two referred to above....
 
Ha Shev - is there some reason you are not citing chapter and verse? You want us to actually do the research? That is a good thing - but you have failed to note my research from the Jewish Encyclopedia in my above posts.

Matthew was quoting from the Greek Septuagint - which is a Jewish translation. The Jewish translators understood almah (young maiden) to mean parthenos (virgin) in that verse. Many Jews at Matthew's time spoke koine Greek - that's why the Greek LXX was translated from the Hebrew.

See our Bible dictionary here:


Excerpt:

"Some have suggested that in the type back there “Immanuel” was a third son of Isaiah, perhaps by a Jewish maiden who may have become a second wife of the prophet. Certain Jewish commentators endeavored to apply the prophecy to the birth of Ahaz’ son Hezekiah. This, however, is ruled out, since the prophecy was uttered during Ahaz’ reign (Isa 7:1), making Hezekiah at least nine years old at the time.—2Ki 16:2; 18:1, 2.

Another possible candidate was Isaiah’s second son, mentioned in the next chapter, Maher-shalal-hash-baz, concerning whom it was said: “Before the boy will know how to call out, ‘My father!’ and ‘My mother!’ one will carry away the resources of Damascus and the spoil of Samaria before the king of Assyria.” (Isa 8:1-4) Certainly this echoes what was said about Immanuel: “Before the boy will know how to reject the bad and choose the good, the ground of whose two kings [of Damascus and Samaria] you are feeling a sickening dread will be left entirely.” (Isa 7:16) Also, the birth of Isaiah’s second son is presented in close connection with the further prophecy involving Immanuel and, as Immanuel was to be a “sign,” so also Isaiah said: “I and the children whom Jehovah has given me are as signs.”Isa 7:14; 8:18.

The principal objection to this identification of Isaiah’s second son as the Immanuel of Ahaz’ day is on the grounds that Isaiah’s wife is spoken of as “the prophetess,” not as “the maiden,” as well as the fact that she was already the mother of Isaiah’s firstborn, Shear-jashub, hence no “maiden.” (Isa 7:3; 8:3) It may be noted, however, that the Hebrew word here translated “maiden” is not bethu·lahʹ, meaning, specifically, “virgin,” but is ʽal·mahʹ, having a broader reference to a young woman, who could be either a virgin maiden or a recently married woman. ʽAl·mahʹ as a common noun also occurs in six other texts, more than one of which specifically involves virgin maidens.—Ge 24:43 (compare vs 16); Ex 2:8; Ps 68:25; Pr 30:19; Ca 1:3; 6:8." [Ca is the Song of Solomon about the Shulahmite maiden who was a virgin]

Our dictionary goes on to explain that Mathew at Mt.1:22,23 was quoting the Jewish Greek LXX for Isaiah 7:14 which translates Hebrew almah as Greek parthenos. In my next post I will document that:
That question is an outright lie, otherwise you'd post what you saw that needed the source and would not avoid my post with such an ad hominem response.
Context context context Isaiah 7-9 is the era of the war with Assyria not a future tense outside historical events of their era.
You avoided the topic & the fact that this is evidence regarding the writer of Matthew not being a Jew who would know this context and not need to selectively take it out of context for sake of "fake news".
Lastly, you can't use Isaiah Sheva (7) against me and discuss the son.
Isaiah 7:3 the son Isaiah is refering to is named Shear ‘Yshv’ (proper transliteration (pronounced hashev=return because Y=H sound) Shear ‘Yshv’ means a remnant shall ‘return’ (HaShev).
If they want to fallaciously claim This son holds the name of Moshiach then to bad that name is HaShev and not Jesus.
-checkmate
I'll take that house you JW's set aside for me now, oh yeah you guys sold it, because you really had no faith in what you teach and the money was more important than redemtion (HaShev).

I'll make this simple for you HaShev:

Matthew quoted the Greek Septuagint translation of Isaiah 7:14 in Matthew 1:22,23. The Greek Septuagint translates Hebrew almah as Greek parthenos/virgin. The Septuagint is a Jewish translation. This is therefore evidence Matthew was Jewish.

Note also that Matthew recorded Jesus stating the greatest commandment in the Bible is to love Jehovah with all our heart, soul and strength - see Matthew 22:37-40. Mark records more detail, to wit:

Mark 12:28-34
One of the scribes who had come up and heard them disputing, knowing that he had answered them in a fine way, asked him: “Which commandment is first* of all?”+ 29 Jesus answered: “The first is, ‘Hear, O Israel, Jehovah our God is one Jehovah, 30 and you must love Jehovah your God with your whole heart and with your whole soul and with your whole mind and with your whole strength.’+ 31 The second is this, ‘You must love your neighbor as yourself.’+ There is no other commandment greater than these.” 32 The scribe said to him: “Teacher, you spoke well, in line with truth, ‘He is One, and there is no other besides him’;+ 33 and to love him with one’s whole heart, with one’s whole understanding, and with one’s whole strength and to love one’s neighbor as oneself is worth far more than all the whole burnt offerings and sacrifices.”+ 34 At this Jesus, discerning that he had answered intelligently, said to him: “You are not far from the Kingdom of God.” But no one had the courage to question him anymore.+

Quoting accurately Deuteronomy 6:4,5 where the Divine Name appears 3 times:

Deuteronomy 6:4,5
“Listen, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah.+ 5 You must love Jehovah your God with all your heart and all your soul*+ and all your strength.*+

This confirms Matthew, Mark and Jesus were Jewish. This is the beginning of the Jewish Shema right?

Note also that Jesus agreed Jehovah is ONE. This confirms Jesus, like the Jews, believed Jehovah is one not a trinity.
You do realize that the book of Yohoshua is called
"H"oshea not. Joshua because
Y was pronounced as an H sound (proper transliteration).
So Jehovah is not proper pronunciation and neither is that a name, it's one of many descriptions meaning the one who causes to be.
Hence the terms YHWH (Creator)
and lesser yhwh (reflective mediator between man and the Essence of Creation).
 
HaShev - on your tangent - a clue:

The definition of the name is the same as the definition of the name Jehoshua.

And a question back: is the prefix Je in Jesus, Jehovah and Jew just coincidence? Or is the Divine Name in the name Judah from which the name Jew is derived?
 
Ha Shev - is there some reason you are not citing chapter and verse? You want us to actually do the research? That is a good thing - but you have failed to note my research from the Jewish Encyclopedia in my above posts.

Matthew was quoting from the Greek Septuagint - which is a Jewish translation. The Jewish translators understood almah (young maiden) to mean parthenos (virgin) in that verse. Many Jews at Matthew's time spoke koine Greek - that's why the Greek LXX was translated from the Hebrew.

See our Bible dictionary here:


Excerpt:

"Some have suggested that in the type back there “Immanuel” was a third son of Isaiah, perhaps by a Jewish maiden who may have become a second wife of the prophet. Certain Jewish commentators endeavored to apply the prophecy to the birth of Ahaz’ son Hezekiah. This, however, is ruled out, since the prophecy was uttered during Ahaz’ reign (Isa 7:1), making Hezekiah at least nine years old at the time.—2Ki 16:2; 18:1, 2.

Another possible candidate was Isaiah’s second son, mentioned in the next chapter, Maher-shalal-hash-baz, concerning whom it was said: “Before the boy will know how to call out, ‘My father!’ and ‘My mother!’ one will carry away the resources of Damascus and the spoil of Samaria before the king of Assyria.” (Isa 8:1-4) Certainly this echoes what was said about Immanuel: “Before the boy will know how to reject the bad and choose the good, the ground of whose two kings [of Damascus and Samaria] you are feeling a sickening dread will be left entirely.” (Isa 7:16) Also, the birth of Isaiah’s second son is presented in close connection with the further prophecy involving Immanuel and, as Immanuel was to be a “sign,” so also Isaiah said: “I and the children whom Jehovah has given me are as signs.”Isa 7:14; 8:18.

The principal objection to this identification of Isaiah’s second son as the Immanuel of Ahaz’ day is on the grounds that Isaiah’s wife is spoken of as “the prophetess,” not as “the maiden,” as well as the fact that she was already the mother of Isaiah’s firstborn, Shear-jashub, hence no “maiden.” (Isa 7:3; 8:3) It may be noted, however, that the Hebrew word here translated “maiden” is not bethu·lahʹ, meaning, specifically, “virgin,” but is ʽal·mahʹ, having a broader reference to a young woman, who could be either a virgin maiden or a recently married woman. ʽAl·mahʹ as a common noun also occurs in six other texts, more than one of which specifically involves virgin maidens.—Ge 24:43 (compare vs 16); Ex 2:8; Ps 68:25; Pr 30:19; Ca 1:3; 6:8." [Ca is the Song of Solomon about the Shulahmite maiden who was a virgin]

Our dictionary goes on to explain that Mathew at Mt.1:22,23 was quoting the Jewish Greek LXX for Isaiah 7:14 which translates Hebrew almah as Greek parthenos. In my next post I will document that:
That question is an outright lie, otherwise you'd post what you saw that needed the source and would not avoid my post with such an ad hominem response.
Context context context Isaiah 7-9 is the era of the war with Assyria not a future tense outside historical events of their era.
You avoided the topic & the fact that this is evidence regarding the writer of Matthew not being a Jew who would know this context and not need to selectively take it out of context for sake of "fake news".
Lastly, you can't use Isaiah Sheva (7) against me and discuss the son.
Isaiah 7:3 the son Isaiah is refering to is named Shear ‘Yshv’ (proper transliteration (pronounced hashev=return because Y=H sound) Shear ‘Yshv’ means a remnant shall ‘return’ (HaShev).
If they want to fallaciously claim This son holds the name of Moshiach then to bad that name is HaShev and not Jesus.
-checkmate
I'll take that house you JW's set aside for me now, oh yeah you guys sold it, because you really had no faith in what you teach and the money was more important than redemtion (HaShev).

I'll make this simple for you HaShev:

Matthew quoted the Greek Septuagint translation of Isaiah 7:14 in Matthew 1:22,23. The Greek Septuagint translates Hebrew almah as Greek parthenos/virgin. The Septuagint is a Jewish translation. This is therefore evidence Matthew was Jewish.

Note also that Matthew recorded Jesus stating the greatest commandment in the Bible is to love Jehovah with all our heart, soul and strength - see Matthew 22:37-40. Mark records more detail, to wit:

Mark 12:28-34
One of the scribes who had come up and heard them disputing, knowing that he had answered them in a fine way, asked him: “Which commandment is first* of all?”+ 29 Jesus answered: “The first is, ‘Hear, O Israel, Jehovah our God is one Jehovah, 30 and you must love Jehovah your God with your whole heart and with your whole soul and with your whole mind and with your whole strength.’+ 31 The second is this, ‘You must love your neighbor as yourself.’+ There is no other commandment greater than these.” 32 The scribe said to him: “Teacher, you spoke well, in line with truth, ‘He is One, and there is no other besides him’;+ 33 and to love him with one’s whole heart, with one’s whole understanding, and with one’s whole strength and to love one’s neighbor as oneself is worth far more than all the whole burnt offerings and sacrifices.”+ 34 At this Jesus, discerning that he had answered intelligently, said to him: “You are not far from the Kingdom of God.” But no one had the courage to question him anymore.+

Quoting accurately Deuteronomy 6:4,5 where the Divine Name appears 3 times:

Deuteronomy 6:4,5
“Listen, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah.+ 5 You must love Jehovah your God with all your heart and all your soul*+ and all your strength.*+

This confirms Matthew, Mark and Jesus were Jewish. This is the beginning of the Jewish Shema right?

Note also that Jesus agreed Jehovah is ONE. This confirms Jesus, like the Jews, believed Jehovah is one not a trinity.
You keep making the same mistakes, you've yet to tell us which historical figure you call Jesus and your apostles cover 2-3 eras and christs. You would have answered those simple questions, but you know it proves my point, that your Jesus is not the Biblical Michael HaMoshiach. And is not based on a singular historical figure in a singular era with a singular profession, age of death, hometown etc.
You know very well that if you answer my Question it restricts you to one figure and Jesus story is of the many more figures that will prove you deceived by an image not a real historical character. As you brought up Origen already has done.

Now, why can you remember the name of your first pet, your first car and first crush, but you can't remember "the name" (HaShem) of your christ figure?

And why do you keep changing the subject? Also, why do you post your opinions with no documentation to back you up? Finallly - why do you keep ignoring the evidence I posted such as from the Jewish Encyclopedia. See my posts 41,44 for example.

Do you have a problem with posting links?
You got caught lying and avoiding again-
>>>why do you post your opinions with no documentation to back you up?
That's not true I left verses and sources at the bottom of posts.
And I didn't change the subject, I just wouldn't let you smokescreen from answering simple questions and problems your commentary raise.
Like why could you not refute Jesus being lucifer without calling Jesus and John of Patmos a liar?
And why you never addressed you calling them liars. Should I play the Jeopardy theme again or why bother if you never answer a question?
 
HaShev - on your tangent - a clue:

The definition of the name is the same as the definition of the name Jehoshua.

And a question back: is the prefix Je in Jesus, Jehovah and Jew just coincidence? Or is the Divine Name in the name Judah from which the name Jew is derived?
*L*
YOU just opened up another can of worms.
Why does Josephus a Jew write every Jewish messianic figure by their Hebrew name but Jesus turns up out of proper sequence as if placed in his text in a Greek name calling him a christ when Josephus was not a Christian which would be who'd write that?-OOPS!
IF YOU RESEARCHED Eusebius he was one of the most prolific forgers and liars of his age, and maybe you'll understand this rewrite of history to benefit Rome a liitle better.
*note earlier Josephus texts and texts mentioning earlier versions have no mention of Jesus, only after Eusebius and Constantine does it appear in the wrong format.
 
Ha Shev - is there some reason you are not citing chapter and verse? You want us to actually do the research? That is a good thing - but you have failed to note my research from the Jewish Encyclopedia in my above posts.

Matthew was quoting from the Greek Septuagint - which is a Jewish translation. The Jewish translators understood almah (young maiden) to mean parthenos (virgin) in that verse. Many Jews at Matthew's time spoke koine Greek - that's why the Greek LXX was translated from the Hebrew.

See our Bible dictionary here:


Excerpt:

"Some have suggested that in the type back there “Immanuel” was a third son of Isaiah, perhaps by a Jewish maiden who may have become a second wife of the prophet. Certain Jewish commentators endeavored to apply the prophecy to the birth of Ahaz’ son Hezekiah. This, however, is ruled out, since the prophecy was uttered during Ahaz’ reign (Isa 7:1), making Hezekiah at least nine years old at the time.—2Ki 16:2; 18:1, 2.

Another possible candidate was Isaiah’s second son, mentioned in the next chapter, Maher-shalal-hash-baz, concerning whom it was said: “Before the boy will know how to call out, ‘My father!’ and ‘My mother!’ one will carry away the resources of Damascus and the spoil of Samaria before the king of Assyria.” (Isa 8:1-4) Certainly this echoes what was said about Immanuel: “Before the boy will know how to reject the bad and choose the good, the ground of whose two kings [of Damascus and Samaria] you are feeling a sickening dread will be left entirely.” (Isa 7:16) Also, the birth of Isaiah’s second son is presented in close connection with the further prophecy involving Immanuel and, as Immanuel was to be a “sign,” so also Isaiah said: “I and the children whom Jehovah has given me are as signs.”Isa 7:14; 8:18.

The principal objection to this identification of Isaiah’s second son as the Immanuel of Ahaz’ day is on the grounds that Isaiah’s wife is spoken of as “the prophetess,” not as “the maiden,” as well as the fact that she was already the mother of Isaiah’s firstborn, Shear-jashub, hence no “maiden.” (Isa 7:3; 8:3) It may be noted, however, that the Hebrew word here translated “maiden” is not bethu·lahʹ, meaning, specifically, “virgin,” but is ʽal·mahʹ, having a broader reference to a young woman, who could be either a virgin maiden or a recently married woman. ʽAl·mahʹ as a common noun also occurs in six other texts, more than one of which specifically involves virgin maidens.—Ge 24:43 (compare vs 16); Ex 2:8; Ps 68:25; Pr 30:19; Ca 1:3; 6:8." [Ca is the Song of Solomon about the Shulahmite maiden who was a virgin]

Our dictionary goes on to explain that Mathew at Mt.1:22,23 was quoting the Jewish Greek LXX for Isaiah 7:14 which translates Hebrew almah as Greek parthenos. In my next post I will document that:
That question is an outright lie, otherwise you'd post what you saw that needed the source and would not avoid my post with such an ad hominem response.
Context context context Isaiah 7-9 is the era of the war with Assyria not a future tense outside historical events of their era.
You avoided the topic & the fact that this is evidence regarding the writer of Matthew not being a Jew who would know this context and not need to selectively take it out of context for sake of "fake news".
Lastly, you can't use Isaiah Sheva (7) against me and discuss the son.
Isaiah 7:3 the son Isaiah is refering to is named Shear ‘Yshv’ (proper transliteration (pronounced hashev=return because Y=H sound) Shear ‘Yshv’ means a remnant shall ‘return’ (HaShev).
If they want to fallaciously claim This son holds the name of Moshiach then to bad that name is HaShev and not Jesus.
-checkmate
I'll take that house you JW's set aside for me now, oh yeah you guys sold it, because you really had no faith in what you teach and the money was more important than redemtion (HaShev).

I'll make this simple for you HaShev:

Matthew quoted the Greek Septuagint translation of Isaiah 7:14 in Matthew 1:22,23. The Greek Septuagint translates Hebrew almah as Greek parthenos/virgin. The Septuagint is a Jewish translation. This is therefore evidence Matthew was Jewish.

Note also that Matthew recorded Jesus stating the greatest commandment in the Bible is to love Jehovah with all our heart, soul and strength - see Matthew 22:37-40. Mark records more detail, to wit:

Mark 12:28-34
One of the scribes who had come up and heard them disputing, knowing that he had answered them in a fine way, asked him: “Which commandment is first* of all?”+ 29 Jesus answered: “The first is, ‘Hear, O Israel, Jehovah our God is one Jehovah, 30 and you must love Jehovah your God with your whole heart and with your whole soul and with your whole mind and with your whole strength.’+ 31 The second is this, ‘You must love your neighbor as yourself.’+ There is no other commandment greater than these.” 32 The scribe said to him: “Teacher, you spoke well, in line with truth, ‘He is One, and there is no other besides him’;+ 33 and to love him with one’s whole heart, with one’s whole understanding, and with one’s whole strength and to love one’s neighbor as oneself is worth far more than all the whole burnt offerings and sacrifices.”+ 34 At this Jesus, discerning that he had answered intelligently, said to him: “You are not far from the Kingdom of God.” But no one had the courage to question him anymore.+

Quoting accurately Deuteronomy 6:4,5 where the Divine Name appears 3 times:

Deuteronomy 6:4,5
“Listen, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah.+ 5 You must love Jehovah your God with all your heart and all your soul*+ and all your strength.*+

This confirms Matthew, Mark and Jesus were Jewish. This is the beginning of the Jewish Shema right?

Note also that Jesus agreed Jehovah is ONE. This confirms Jesus, like the Jews, believed Jehovah is one not a trinity.
You do realize that the book of Yohoshua is called
"H"oshea not. Joshua because
Y was pronounced as an H sound (proper transliteration).
So Jehovah is not proper pronunciation and neither is that a name, it's one of many descriptions meaning the one who causes to be.
Hence the terms YHWH (Creator)
and lesser yhwh (reflective mediator between man and the Essence of Creation).
There is no lesser YHWH and there is no distinguishing of capitals in the original Hebrew language. Y is NOT correctly transliterated as H. The Divine Name is YHWH not HHWH.

I already posted how we spell/pronounce the Divine Name in the 1021 languages on our website - did you miss that? Jehovah is the English spelling we use, not the Hebrew spelling.

So, is the Divine Name in the name Judah from which the name Jew is derived? Or do you think Jew should be spelled Hew? Why the J in Jew?

Exodus 3:15
Then God said once more to Moses:
“This is what you are to say to the Israelites, ‘Jehovah the God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham,+ the God of Isaac,+ and the God of Jacob,+ has sent me to you.’ This is my name forever,+ and this is how I am to be remembered from generation to generation.

So you contradict the Torah when you say Jehovah is not a name. Which Bible translation do you think correctly translates YHWH in Ex. 3:15 and why?

And, again, please respond to my posts 41 & 44.
 
OK, back to the Bible as evidence that the author is Jehovah, not humans. No human knew about earth's vertical wind cycles which go North and South as Solomon correctly states of all of earth's wind circlings at Ecclesiastes 1:6. Solomon did know that winds can also be east and west but he was inspired by Jehovah to just refer to North and South so we could scientifically research the point and have the joy of discovery, And what has been discovered? I referenced Hadley cells.

From google search:


plural noun: Hadley cells
  1. a large-scale atmospheric convection cell in which air rises at the equator and sinks at medium latitudes, typically about 30° north or south.
Note the definition shows these wind circlings go North and South in harmony with Eccl.1:6!

Of course, there are more vertical wind circlings besides the two referred to above....

A Google search will also allow you to discover that convection cells tend to form over hot, moist areas such as oceans at the equator. The rotation of the planet has an influence on the cooling affect of evaporated water as if rises into the atmosphere.

I looked for a comprehensive description of evapotranspiration in Eccl 1:6 but realized that a flat earth would tend to skew the effects of weather on a globular planet.
 
You all - I am coming to realize that HaShev is not a Jew from his responses since he contradicts the Torah and Jewish Encyclopedia. Here is a link to what Jews actually believe:

 
OK, back to the Bible as evidence that the author is Jehovah, not humans. No human knew about earth's vertical wind cycles which go North and South as Solomon correctly states of all of earth's wind circlings at Ecclesiastes 1:6. Solomon did know that winds can also be east and west but he was inspired by Jehovah to just refer to North and South so we could scientifically research the point and have the joy of discovery, And what has been discovered? I referenced Hadley cells.

From google search:


plural noun: Hadley cells
  1. a large-scale atmospheric convection cell in which air rises at the equator and sinks at medium latitudes, typically about 30° north or south.
Note the definition shows these wind circlings go North and South in harmony with Eccl.1:6!

Of course, there are more vertical wind circlings besides the two referred to above....

A Google search will also allow you to discover that convection cells tend to form over hot, moist areas such as oceans at the equator. The rotation of the planet has an influence on the cooling affect of evaporated water as if rises into the atmosphere.

I looked for a comprehensive description of evapotranspiration in Eccl 1:6 but realized that a flat earth would tend to skew the effects of weather on a globular planet.

Link please.

A link:


Note also the second of the three northern vertical wind circlings is the northern Ferrel cell - see all 6 vertical wind circlings here:

Wind Directions
Figure B. General Wind Directions. (Image from NASA).

From 30° latitude, some of the air that sinks to the surface returns to the equator to complete the Hadley Cell.
 
OK, back to the Bible as evidence that the author is Jehovah, not humans. No human knew about earth's vertical wind cycles which go North and South as Solomon correctly states of all of earth's wind circlings at Ecclesiastes 1:6. Solomon did know that winds can also be east and west but he was inspired by Jehovah to just refer to North and South so we could scientifically research the point and have the joy of discovery, And what has been discovered? I referenced Hadley cells.

From google search:


plural noun: Hadley cells
  1. a large-scale atmospheric convection cell in which air rises at the equator and sinks at medium latitudes, typically about 30° north or south.
Note the definition shows these wind circlings go North and South in harmony with Eccl.1:6!

Of course, there are more vertical wind circlings besides the two referred to above....

A Google search will also allow you to discover that convection cells tend to form over hot, moist areas such as oceans at the equator. The rotation of the planet has an influence on the cooling affect of evaporated water as if rises into the atmosphere.

I looked for a comprehensive description of evapotranspiration in Eccl 1:6 but realized that a flat earth would tend to skew the effects of weather on a globular planet.

Link please.

A link:


Note also the second of the three northern vertical wind circlings is the northern Ferrel cell - see all 6 vertical wind circlings here:

Wind Directions
Figure B. General Wind Directions. (Image from NASA).

From 30° latitude, some of the air that sinks to the surface returns to the equator to complete the Hadley Cell.

Your link is fine.

Link please to a description of evapotranspiration in any of the Bibles.
 
Ha Shev - is there some reason you are not citing chapter and verse? You want us to actually do the research? That is a good thing - but you have failed to note my research from the Jewish Encyclopedia in my above posts.

Matthew was quoting from the Greek Septuagint - which is a Jewish translation. The Jewish translators understood almah (young maiden) to mean parthenos (virgin) in that verse. Many Jews at Matthew's time spoke koine Greek - that's why the Greek LXX was translated from the Hebrew.

See our Bible dictionary here:


Excerpt:

"Some have suggested that in the type back there “Immanuel” was a third son of Isaiah, perhaps by a Jewish maiden who may have become a second wife of the prophet. Certain Jewish commentators endeavored to apply the prophecy to the birth of Ahaz’ son Hezekiah. This, however, is ruled out, since the prophecy was uttered during Ahaz’ reign (Isa 7:1), making Hezekiah at least nine years old at the time.—2Ki 16:2; 18:1, 2.

Another possible candidate was Isaiah’s second son, mentioned in the next chapter, Maher-shalal-hash-baz, concerning whom it was said: “Before the boy will know how to call out, ‘My father!’ and ‘My mother!’ one will carry away the resources of Damascus and the spoil of Samaria before the king of Assyria.” (Isa 8:1-4) Certainly this echoes what was said about Immanuel: “Before the boy will know how to reject the bad and choose the good, the ground of whose two kings [of Damascus and Samaria] you are feeling a sickening dread will be left entirely.” (Isa 7:16) Also, the birth of Isaiah’s second son is presented in close connection with the further prophecy involving Immanuel and, as Immanuel was to be a “sign,” so also Isaiah said: “I and the children whom Jehovah has given me are as signs.”Isa 7:14; 8:18.

The principal objection to this identification of Isaiah’s second son as the Immanuel of Ahaz’ day is on the grounds that Isaiah’s wife is spoken of as “the prophetess,” not as “the maiden,” as well as the fact that she was already the mother of Isaiah’s firstborn, Shear-jashub, hence no “maiden.” (Isa 7:3; 8:3) It may be noted, however, that the Hebrew word here translated “maiden” is not bethu·lahʹ, meaning, specifically, “virgin,” but is ʽal·mahʹ, having a broader reference to a young woman, who could be either a virgin maiden or a recently married woman. ʽAl·mahʹ as a common noun also occurs in six other texts, more than one of which specifically involves virgin maidens.—Ge 24:43 (compare vs 16); Ex 2:8; Ps 68:25; Pr 30:19; Ca 1:3; 6:8." [Ca is the Song of Solomon about the Shulahmite maiden who was a virgin]

Our dictionary goes on to explain that Mathew at Mt.1:22,23 was quoting the Jewish Greek LXX for Isaiah 7:14 which translates Hebrew almah as Greek parthenos. In my next post I will document that:
That question is an outright lie, otherwise you'd post what you saw that needed the source and would not avoid my post with such an ad hominem response.
Context context context Isaiah 7-9 is the era of the war with Assyria not a future tense outside historical events of their era.
You avoided the topic & the fact that this is evidence regarding the writer of Matthew not being a Jew who would know this context and not need to selectively take it out of context for sake of "fake news".
Lastly, you can't use Isaiah Sheva (7) against me and discuss the son.
Isaiah 7:3 the son Isaiah is refering to is named Shear ‘Yshv’ (proper transliteration (pronounced hashev=return because Y=H sound) Shear ‘Yshv’ means a remnant shall ‘return’ (HaShev).
If they want to fallaciously claim This son holds the name of Moshiach then to bad that name is HaShev and not Jesus.
-checkmate
I'll take that house you JW's set aside for me now, oh yeah you guys sold it, because you really had no faith in what you teach and the money was more important than redemtion (HaShev).

I'll make this simple for you HaShev:

Matthew quoted the Greek Septuagint translation of Isaiah 7:14 in Matthew 1:22,23. The Greek Septuagint translates Hebrew almah as Greek parthenos/virgin. The Septuagint is a Jewish translation. This is therefore evidence Matthew was Jewish.

Note also that Matthew recorded Jesus stating the greatest commandment in the Bible is to love Jehovah with all our heart, soul and strength - see Matthew 22:37-40. Mark records more detail, to wit:

Mark 12:28-34
One of the scribes who had come up and heard them disputing, knowing that he had answered them in a fine way, asked him: “Which commandment is first* of all?”+ 29 Jesus answered: “The first is, ‘Hear, O Israel, Jehovah our God is one Jehovah, 30 and you must love Jehovah your God with your whole heart and with your whole soul and with your whole mind and with your whole strength.’+ 31 The second is this, ‘You must love your neighbor as yourself.’+ There is no other commandment greater than these.” 32 The scribe said to him: “Teacher, you spoke well, in line with truth, ‘He is One, and there is no other besides him’;+ 33 and to love him with one’s whole heart, with one’s whole understanding, and with one’s whole strength and to love one’s neighbor as oneself is worth far more than all the whole burnt offerings and sacrifices.”+ 34 At this Jesus, discerning that he had answered intelligently, said to him: “You are not far from the Kingdom of God.” But no one had the courage to question him anymore.+

Quoting accurately Deuteronomy 6:4,5 where the Divine Name appears 3 times:

Deuteronomy 6:4,5
“Listen, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah.+ 5 You must love Jehovah your God with all your heart and all your soul*+ and all your strength.*+

This confirms Matthew, Mark and Jesus were Jewish. This is the beginning of the Jewish Shema right?

Note also that Jesus agreed Jehovah is ONE. This confirms Jesus, like the Jews, believed Jehovah is one not a trinity.
You do realize that the book of Yohoshua is called
"H"oshea not. Joshua because
Y was pronounced as an H sound (proper transliteration).
So Jehovah is not proper pronunciation and neither is that a name, it's one of many descriptions meaning the one who causes to be.
Hence the terms YHWH (Creator)
and lesser yhwh (reflective mediator between man and the Essence of Creation).
There is no lesser YHWH and there is no distinguishing of capitals in the original Hebrew language. Y is NOT correctly transliterated as H. The Divine Name is YHWH not HHWH.

I already posted how we spell/pronounce the Divine Name in the 1021 languages on our website - did you miss that? Jehovah is the English spelling we use, not the Hebrew spelling.

So, is the Divine Name in the name Judah from which the name Jew is derived? Or do you think Jew should be spelled Hew? Why the J in Jew?

Exodus 3:15
Then God said once more to Moses:
“This is what you are to say to the Israelites, ‘Jehovah the God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham,+ the God of Isaac,+ and the God of Jacob,+ has sent me to you.’ This is my name forever,+ and this is how I am to be remembered from generation to generation.

So you contradict the Torah when you say Jehovah is not a name. Which Bible translation do you think correctly translates YHWH in Ex. 3:15 and why?

And, again, please respond to my posts 41 & 44.
YOU JUST DENIED THE BOOK OF HOSEA EXISTS.
You are Caught lying yet again and this time against the collegiate scholars.
Here lazy look it up
Note Medatron is not a name, but a description too, it means mediator.
Enoch mentions the lesser one who causes to be as does the scrolls (1QM v, 1-2) after God next in importance is Michael).


No I don't contradict the Torah, you do:
YeruShalem would carry the name. (1 Kings 11:36 &
in dead sea scrolls: Words of the Archangel Michael scroll 4Q529, 6Q23)
The Gemarah (Baba Batra 75) Tells us Jerusalem is named after G0D and is the place commemorating his name and essence. In Sefer D’varim (12:5, 11, 14, 18, 21; 14:23,24, 25; 15:20; 16:2, 6, 7, 11, 15, 16; 17:8, 10; 18:6; 26:2; 31:11).the place that I will choose to place My Name. That is referring to YeruShalem because Sifri identifies the place which Hashem will choose (12:18) as “Yerushalayim”.

And by the way since Shalem is the Evening Star (Michael) Shalim - Wikipedia
and Jesus is claimed the nemesis fallen morning star (Rev 22:16)
And Yerushalem's legend is the city of peace when the Evening Star/Night overturns/removes the Morning/Day, then Not just the Torah reveals the good cop bad cop story but the name of the Holy city itself is a cliff note for the same story and validates my posts you mocked. You are proven by both Torah and City's name to be worshiping Lucifer and lying about it.-Checkmate!
 
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Ha Shev - is there some reason you are not citing chapter and verse? You want us to actually do the research? That is a good thing - but you have failed to note my research from the Jewish Encyclopedia in my above posts.

Matthew was quoting from the Greek Septuagint - which is a Jewish translation. The Jewish translators understood almah (young maiden) to mean parthenos (virgin) in that verse. Many Jews at Matthew's time spoke koine Greek - that's why the Greek LXX was translated from the Hebrew.

See our Bible dictionary here:


Excerpt:

"Some have suggested that in the type back there “Immanuel” was a third son of Isaiah, perhaps by a Jewish maiden who may have become a second wife of the prophet. Certain Jewish commentators endeavored to apply the prophecy to the birth of Ahaz’ son Hezekiah. This, however, is ruled out, since the prophecy was uttered during Ahaz’ reign (Isa 7:1), making Hezekiah at least nine years old at the time.—2Ki 16:2; 18:1, 2.

Another possible candidate was Isaiah’s second son, mentioned in the next chapter, Maher-shalal-hash-baz, concerning whom it was said: “Before the boy will know how to call out, ‘My father!’ and ‘My mother!’ one will carry away the resources of Damascus and the spoil of Samaria before the king of Assyria.” (Isa 8:1-4) Certainly this echoes what was said about Immanuel: “Before the boy will know how to reject the bad and choose the good, the ground of whose two kings [of Damascus and Samaria] you are feeling a sickening dread will be left entirely.” (Isa 7:16) Also, the birth of Isaiah’s second son is presented in close connection with the further prophecy involving Immanuel and, as Immanuel was to be a “sign,” so also Isaiah said: “I and the children whom Jehovah has given me are as signs.”Isa 7:14; 8:18.

The principal objection to this identification of Isaiah’s second son as the Immanuel of Ahaz’ day is on the grounds that Isaiah’s wife is spoken of as “the prophetess,” not as “the maiden,” as well as the fact that she was already the mother of Isaiah’s firstborn, Shear-jashub, hence no “maiden.” (Isa 7:3; 8:3) It may be noted, however, that the Hebrew word here translated “maiden” is not bethu·lahʹ, meaning, specifically, “virgin,” but is ʽal·mahʹ, having a broader reference to a young woman, who could be either a virgin maiden or a recently married woman. ʽAl·mahʹ as a common noun also occurs in six other texts, more than one of which specifically involves virgin maidens.—Ge 24:43 (compare vs 16); Ex 2:8; Ps 68:25; Pr 30:19; Ca 1:3; 6:8." [Ca is the Song of Solomon about the Shulahmite maiden who was a virgin]

Our dictionary goes on to explain that Mathew at Mt.1:22,23 was quoting the Jewish Greek LXX for Isaiah 7:14 which translates Hebrew almah as Greek parthenos. In my next post I will document that:
That question is an outright lie, otherwise you'd post what you saw that needed the source and would not avoid my post with such an ad hominem response.
Context context context Isaiah 7-9 is the era of the war with Assyria not a future tense outside historical events of their era.
You avoided the topic & the fact that this is evidence regarding the writer of Matthew not being a Jew who would know this context and not need to selectively take it out of context for sake of "fake news".
Lastly, you can't use Isaiah Sheva (7) against me and discuss the son.
Isaiah 7:3 the son Isaiah is refering to is named Shear ‘Yshv’ (proper transliteration (pronounced hashev=return because Y=H sound) Shear ‘Yshv’ means a remnant shall ‘return’ (HaShev).
If they want to fallaciously claim This son holds the name of Moshiach then to bad that name is HaShev and not Jesus.
-checkmate
I'll take that house you JW's set aside for me now, oh yeah you guys sold it, because you really had no faith in what you teach and the money was more important than redemtion (HaShev).

I'll make this simple for you HaShev:

Matthew quoted the Greek Septuagint translation of Isaiah 7:14 in Matthew 1:22,23. The Greek Septuagint translates Hebrew almah as Greek parthenos/virgin. The Septuagint is a Jewish translation. This is therefore evidence Matthew was Jewish.

Note also that Matthew recorded Jesus stating the greatest commandment in the Bible is to love Jehovah with all our heart, soul and strength - see Matthew 22:37-40. Mark records more detail, to wit:

Mark 12:28-34
One of the scribes who had come up and heard them disputing, knowing that he had answered them in a fine way, asked him: “Which commandment is first* of all?”+ 29 Jesus answered: “The first is, ‘Hear, O Israel, Jehovah our God is one Jehovah, 30 and you must love Jehovah your God with your whole heart and with your whole soul and with your whole mind and with your whole strength.’+ 31 The second is this, ‘You must love your neighbor as yourself.’+ There is no other commandment greater than these.” 32 The scribe said to him: “Teacher, you spoke well, in line with truth, ‘He is One, and there is no other besides him’;+ 33 and to love him with one’s whole heart, with one’s whole understanding, and with one’s whole strength and to love one’s neighbor as oneself is worth far more than all the whole burnt offerings and sacrifices.”+ 34 At this Jesus, discerning that he had answered intelligently, said to him: “You are not far from the Kingdom of God.” But no one had the courage to question him anymore.+

Quoting accurately Deuteronomy 6:4,5 where the Divine Name appears 3 times:

Deuteronomy 6:4,5
“Listen, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah.+ 5 You must love Jehovah your God with all your heart and all your soul*+ and all your strength.*+

This confirms Matthew, Mark and Jesus were Jewish. This is the beginning of the Jewish Shema right?

Note also that Jesus agreed Jehovah is ONE. This confirms Jesus, like the Jews, believed Jehovah is one not a trinity.
 
View attachment 338951

May 20 (6 hours ago)​

The bible is evidence. It is witness testimony and in most cases, we know who wrote it. Shall we ignore evidence because the witness has died? How foolish! Using that standard, we would discard completely most libraries. All our history books would be rendered useless, as would most of our science books and math books. Isaac Newton is dead. Shall we therefore discard what he wrote?
Galileo is dead. Shall we therefore discard what he wrote?
Clarence Darrow is past on. Shall we discard what he wrote? How about Supreme Ct Justice Oliver Wendell Holmes?

Shall we discard the Gettysburg Address because Abe Lincoln is dead?
How about the Founding Fathers? Is our Constitution useless because they are all deceased?

The Rules of evidence in all 50 states allow the introduction of witness testimony. Of course, it is always wise to verify evidence with other testimony or cross examination, but that still leaves the original testimony for consideration by the judge or jury.

We can verify evidence by examining the lives of the speaker to evaluate his credibility and this is useful for the bible. Was Moses an honest man? Were the apostles honest men? How about Matthew, John and Paul?
Bible evidence: And a snake spoke to Eve. Que the belly-laughs.
Bible evidence: And a burning bush spoke to Moses. Que the belly-laughs.
Bible evidence: And Noah not only built an Ark, but put two of every kind of animal in the world in it and of course, the entire world was covered in an ocean after forty days of rain. Que the belly-laughs.
Bible evidence: And blaring trumpets brought down the stone walls of Jericho (some seriously bad construction techniques). Que the belly-laughs.
Bible evidence: And Moses separated the Red Sea and drowned the Pharaoh and his army (all the Pharaoh's deaths were recorded by the Egyptian scribes and none drowned in the Red Sea. Que the belly-laughs.
The only actual things listed in the Bible that were verifiable and logical, were some of the battles that did occur, as well as some of the cities that were listed.
The Bible: Que the belly-laughs.

Do you have a preference as to which point you wish me to address first?

For now, the flood. Have you made any attempt to harmonize Biblical interpretation with scientific interpretation. Or are you biased against the Bible?

The 'rain' was not due to the current water cycle - it was the falling of the upper waters of Genesis 1:6-8 - see the separate thread on these verses. And you missed a detail in the Genesis account of the flood: 2 of each clean animal but 7 of each clean kind of animal.

There is mammoth evidence for the flood (pun intended) - would you like me to post some of this evidence?
The 'rain' was not due to the current water cycle - it was the falling of the upper waters of Genesis 1:6-8
.
Genesis 1:6-8
King James Version (KJV). 6 And God said, Let there be a firmament in the midst of the waters, and let it divide the waters from the waters.
.
what level of impropriety they will attempt to justify their disinformation ...

just half the water described would be more than the entire solar system would be able to absorb - where are the lower waters - if falling why wouldn't the water not have rolled off the flat earth, etc. ... what they saw was a blue sky and believed they were a bubble in an ocean universe.

the same for your miller experiment - justifying disinformation with selective speculation for a failed experiment that does not equate the spiritual content of physiology that made life possible by successive, retained evolutionary staging to complete the process.

- disinformation used to insure the forgeries and fallacies of the desert religions rather than fulfilling the goal of the original religion of antiquity they have collectively abandoned.
 
Ha Shev - is there some reason you are not citing chapter and verse? You want us to actually do the research? That is a good thing - but you have failed to note my research from the Jewish Encyclopedia in my above posts.

Matthew was quoting from the Greek Septuagint - which is a Jewish translation. The Jewish translators understood almah (young maiden) to mean parthenos (virgin) in that verse. Many Jews at Matthew's time spoke koine Greek - that's why the Greek LXX was translated from the Hebrew.

See our Bible dictionary here:


Excerpt:

"Some have suggested that in the type back there “Immanuel” was a third son of Isaiah, perhaps by a Jewish maiden who may have become a second wife of the prophet. Certain Jewish commentators endeavored to apply the prophecy to the birth of Ahaz’ son Hezekiah. This, however, is ruled out, since the prophecy was uttered during Ahaz’ reign (Isa 7:1), making Hezekiah at least nine years old at the time.—2Ki 16:2; 18:1, 2.

Another possible candidate was Isaiah’s second son, mentioned in the next chapter, Maher-shalal-hash-baz, concerning whom it was said: “Before the boy will know how to call out, ‘My father!’ and ‘My mother!’ one will carry away the resources of Damascus and the spoil of Samaria before the king of Assyria.” (Isa 8:1-4) Certainly this echoes what was said about Immanuel: “Before the boy will know how to reject the bad and choose the good, the ground of whose two kings [of Damascus and Samaria] you are feeling a sickening dread will be left entirely.” (Isa 7:16) Also, the birth of Isaiah’s second son is presented in close connection with the further prophecy involving Immanuel and, as Immanuel was to be a “sign,” so also Isaiah said: “I and the children whom Jehovah has given me are as signs.”Isa 7:14; 8:18.

The principal objection to this identification of Isaiah’s second son as the Immanuel of Ahaz’ day is on the grounds that Isaiah’s wife is spoken of as “the prophetess,” not as “the maiden,” as well as the fact that she was already the mother of Isaiah’s firstborn, Shear-jashub, hence no “maiden.” (Isa 7:3; 8:3) It may be noted, however, that the Hebrew word here translated “maiden” is not bethu·lahʹ, meaning, specifically, “virgin,” but is ʽal·mahʹ, having a broader reference to a young woman, who could be either a virgin maiden or a recently married woman. ʽAl·mahʹ as a common noun also occurs in six other texts, more than one of which specifically involves virgin maidens.—Ge 24:43 (compare vs 16); Ex 2:8; Ps 68:25; Pr 30:19; Ca 1:3; 6:8." [Ca is the Song of Solomon about the Shulahmite maiden who was a virgin]

Our dictionary goes on to explain that Mathew at Mt.1:22,23 was quoting the Jewish Greek LXX for Isaiah 7:14 which translates Hebrew almah as Greek parthenos. In my next post I will document that:
That question is an outright lie, otherwise you'd post what you saw that needed the source and would not avoid my post with such an ad hominem response.
Context context context Isaiah 7-9 is the era of the war with Assyria not a future tense outside historical events of their era.
You avoided the topic & the fact that this is evidence regarding the writer of Matthew not being a Jew who would know this context and not need to selectively take it out of context for sake of "fake news".
Lastly, you can't use Isaiah Sheva (7) against me and discuss the son.
Isaiah 7:3 the son Isaiah is refering to is named Shear ‘Yshv’ (proper transliteration (pronounced hashev=return because Y=H sound) Shear ‘Yshv’ means a remnant shall ‘return’ (HaShev).
If they want to fallaciously claim This son holds the name of Moshiach then to bad that name is HaShev and not Jesus.
-checkmate
I'll take that house you JW's set aside for me now, oh yeah you guys sold it, because you really had no faith in what you teach and the money was more important than redemtion (HaShev).

I'll make this simple for you HaShev:

Matthew quoted the Greek Septuagint translation of Isaiah 7:14 in Matthew 1:22,23. The Greek Septuagint translates Hebrew almah as Greek parthenos/virgin. The Septuagint is a Jewish translation. This is therefore evidence Matthew was Jewish.

Note also that Matthew recorded Jesus stating the greatest commandment in the Bible is to love Jehovah with all our heart, soul and strength - see Matthew 22:37-40. Mark records more detail, to wit:

Mark 12:28-34
One of the scribes who had come up and heard them disputing, knowing that he had answered them in a fine way, asked him: “Which commandment is first* of all?”+ 29 Jesus answered: “The first is, ‘Hear, O Israel, Jehovah our God is one Jehovah, 30 and you must love Jehovah your God with your whole heart and with your whole soul and with your whole mind and with your whole strength.’+ 31 The second is this, ‘You must love your neighbor as yourself.’+ There is no other commandment greater than these.” 32 The scribe said to him: “Teacher, you spoke well, in line with truth, ‘He is One, and there is no other besides him’;+ 33 and to love him with one’s whole heart, with one’s whole understanding, and with one’s whole strength and to love one’s neighbor as oneself is worth far more than all the whole burnt offerings and sacrifices.”+ 34 At this Jesus, discerning that he had answered intelligently, said to him: “You are not far from the Kingdom of God.” But no one had the courage to question him anymore.+

Quoting accurately Deuteronomy 6:4,5 where the Divine Name appears 3 times:

Deuteronomy 6:4,5
“Listen, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah.+ 5 You must love Jehovah your God with all your heart and all your soul*+ and all your strength.*+

This confirms Matthew, Mark and Jesus were Jewish. This is the beginning of the Jewish Shema right?

Note also that Jesus agreed Jehovah is ONE. This confirms Jesus, like the Jews, believed Jehovah is one not a trinity.
Newtonian uses Non Judaic text, but the Hebrew Tanakh should be the only source to discuss or argue what it says and that text differs from Newtonians claims on Deut 6
 
Ha Shev - is there some reason you are not citing chapter and verse? You want us to actually do the research? That is a good thing - but you have failed to note my research from the Jewish Encyclopedia in my above posts.

Matthew was quoting from the Greek Septuagint - which is a Jewish translation. The Jewish translators understood almah (young maiden) to mean parthenos (virgin) in that verse. Many Jews at Matthew's time spoke koine Greek - that's why the Greek LXX was translated from the Hebrew.

See our Bible dictionary here:


Excerpt:

"Some have suggested that in the type back there “Immanuel” was a third son of Isaiah, perhaps by a Jewish maiden who may have become a second wife of the prophet. Certain Jewish commentators endeavored to apply the prophecy to the birth of Ahaz’ son Hezekiah. This, however, is ruled out, since the prophecy was uttered during Ahaz’ reign (Isa 7:1), making Hezekiah at least nine years old at the time.—2Ki 16:2; 18:1, 2.

Another possible candidate was Isaiah’s second son, mentioned in the next chapter, Maher-shalal-hash-baz, concerning whom it was said: “Before the boy will know how to call out, ‘My father!’ and ‘My mother!’ one will carry away the resources of Damascus and the spoil of Samaria before the king of Assyria.” (Isa 8:1-4) Certainly this echoes what was said about Immanuel: “Before the boy will know how to reject the bad and choose the good, the ground of whose two kings [of Damascus and Samaria] you are feeling a sickening dread will be left entirely.” (Isa 7:16) Also, the birth of Isaiah’s second son is presented in close connection with the further prophecy involving Immanuel and, as Immanuel was to be a “sign,” so also Isaiah said: “I and the children whom Jehovah has given me are as signs.”Isa 7:14; 8:18.

The principal objection to this identification of Isaiah’s second son as the Immanuel of Ahaz’ day is on the grounds that Isaiah’s wife is spoken of as “the prophetess,” not as “the maiden,” as well as the fact that she was already the mother of Isaiah’s firstborn, Shear-jashub, hence no “maiden.” (Isa 7:3; 8:3) It may be noted, however, that the Hebrew word here translated “maiden” is not bethu·lahʹ, meaning, specifically, “virgin,” but is ʽal·mahʹ, having a broader reference to a young woman, who could be either a virgin maiden or a recently married woman. ʽAl·mahʹ as a common noun also occurs in six other texts, more than one of which specifically involves virgin maidens.—Ge 24:43 (compare vs 16); Ex 2:8; Ps 68:25; Pr 30:19; Ca 1:3; 6:8." [Ca is the Song of Solomon about the Shulahmite maiden who was a virgin]

Our dictionary goes on to explain that Mathew at Mt.1:22,23 was quoting the Jewish Greek LXX for Isaiah 7:14 which translates Hebrew almah as Greek parthenos. In my next post I will document that:
That question is an outright lie, otherwise you'd post what you saw that needed the source and would not avoid my post with such an ad hominem response.
Context context context Isaiah 7-9 is the era of the war with Assyria not a future tense outside historical events of their era.
You avoided the topic & the fact that this is evidence regarding the writer of Matthew not being a Jew who would know this context and not need to selectively take it out of context for sake of "fake news".
Lastly, you can't use Isaiah Sheva (7) against me and discuss the son.
Isaiah 7:3 the son Isaiah is refering to is named Shear ‘Yshv’ (proper transliteration (pronounced hashev=return because Y=H sound) Shear ‘Yshv’ means a remnant shall ‘return’ (HaShev).
If they want to fallaciously claim This son holds the name of Moshiach then to bad that name is HaShev and not Jesus.
-checkmate
I'll take that house you JW's set aside for me now, oh yeah you guys sold it, because you really had no faith in what you teach and the money was more important than redemtion (HaShev).

I'll make this simple for you HaShev:

Matthew quoted the Greek Septuagint translation of Isaiah 7:14 in Matthew 1:22,23. The Greek Septuagint translates Hebrew almah as Greek parthenos/virgin. The Septuagint is a Jewish translation. This is therefore evidence Matthew was Jewish.

Note also that Matthew recorded Jesus stating the greatest commandment in the Bible is to love Jehovah with all our heart, soul and strength - see Matthew 22:37-40. Mark records more detail, to wit:

Mark 12:28-34
One of the scribes who had come up and heard them disputing, knowing that he had answered them in a fine way, asked him: “Which commandment is first* of all?”+ 29 Jesus answered: “The first is, ‘Hear, O Israel, Jehovah our God is one Jehovah, 30 and you must love Jehovah your God with your whole heart and with your whole soul and with your whole mind and with your whole strength.’+ 31 The second is this, ‘You must love your neighbor as yourself.’+ There is no other commandment greater than these.” 32 The scribe said to him: “Teacher, you spoke well, in line with truth, ‘He is One, and there is no other besides him’;+ 33 and to love him with one’s whole heart, with one’s whole understanding, and with one’s whole strength and to love one’s neighbor as oneself is worth far more than all the whole burnt offerings and sacrifices.”+ 34 At this Jesus, discerning that he had answered intelligently, said to him: “You are not far from the Kingdom of God.” But no one had the courage to question him anymore.+

Quoting accurately Deuteronomy 6:4,5 where the Divine Name appears 3 times:

Deuteronomy 6:4,5
“Listen, O Israel: Jehovah our God is one Jehovah.+ 5 You must love Jehovah your God with all your heart and all your soul*+ and all your strength.*+

This confirms Matthew, Mark and Jesus were Jewish. This is the beginning of the Jewish Shema right?

Note also that Jesus agreed Jehovah is ONE. This confirms Jesus, like the Jews, believed Jehovah is one not a trinity.
Newtonian uses Non Judaic text, but the Hebrew Tanakh should be the only source to discuss or argue what it says and that text differs from Newtonians claims on Deut 6
Well they always say the A PAUL and his teachings ( apple) doesn’t fall far from the tree and since Newtonians ( the followers of Newton) got konked on the head pretty hard from a “ falling apple of sorts” and came up with a whole new religion or theory because of it why shouldn’t we be surprised that this particular “ Newtonian” eats from the ” forbidden tree” namely the New Testament and that tainted fruit has tainted his point of view... Shalom Michael just came in for a look see and I see you have everything handled but I couldn’t resist a little jab or two...
 

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