Ha Shev - is there some reason you are not citing chapter and verse? You want us to actually do the research? That is a good thing - but you have failed to note my research from the Jewish Encyclopedia in my above posts.
Matthew was quoting from the Greek Septuagint - which is a Jewish translation. The Jewish translators understood almah (young maiden) to mean parthenos (virgin) in that verse. Many Jews at Matthew's time spoke koine Greek - that's why the Greek LXX was translated from the Hebrew.
See our Bible dictionary here:
This is an authorized Web site of Jehovah’s Witnesses. It is a research tool for publications in various languages produced by Jehovah’s Witnesses.
wol.jw.org
Excerpt:
"Some have suggested that in the type back there “Immanuel” was a third son of Isaiah, perhaps by a Jewish maiden who may have become a second wife of the prophet. Certain Jewish commentators endeavored to apply the prophecy to the birth of Ahaz’ son Hezekiah. This, however, is ruled out, since the prophecy was uttered during Ahaz’ reign (
Isa 7:1), making Hezekiah at least nine years old at the time.—
2Ki 16:2; 18:1, 2.
Another possible candidate was Isaiah’s second son, mentioned in the next chapter, Maher-shalal-hash-baz, concerning whom it was said: “Before the boy will know how to call out, ‘My father!’ and ‘My mother!’ one will carry away the resources of Damascus and the spoil of Samaria before the king of Assyria.” (
Isa 8:1-4) Certainly this echoes what was said about Immanuel: “Before the boy will know how to reject the bad and choose the good, the ground of whose two kings [of Damascus and Samaria] you are feeling a sickening dread will be left entirely.” (
Isa 7:16) Also, the birth of Isaiah’s second son is presented in close connection with the further prophecy involving Immanuel and, as Immanuel was to be a “sign,” so also Isaiah said: “I and the children whom Jehovah has given me are as
signs.”—
Isa 7:14; 8:18.
The principal objection to this identification of Isaiah’s second son as the Immanuel of Ahaz’ day is on the grounds that Isaiah’s wife is spoken of as “the prophetess,” not as “the maiden,” as well as the fact that she was already the mother of Isaiah’s firstborn, Shear-jashub, hence no “maiden.” (
Isa 7:3; 8:3) It may be noted, however, that the Hebrew word here translated “maiden” is not
bethu·lahʹ, meaning, specifically, “virgin,” but is
ʽal·mahʹ, having a broader reference to a young woman, who could be either a virgin maiden or a recently married woman.
ʽAl·mahʹ as a common noun also occurs in six other texts, more than one of which specifically involves virgin maidens.—
Ge 24:43 (compare
vs 16);
Ex 2:8; Ps 68:25; Pr 30:19; Ca 1:3; 6:8." [Ca is the Song of Solomon about the Shulahmite maiden who was a virgin]
Our dictionary goes on to explain that Mathew at Mt.1:22,23 was quoting the Jewish Greek LXX for Isaiah 7:14 which translates Hebrew almah as Greek parthenos. In my next post I will document that:
science.howstuffworks.com
