The Official Discussion Thread for who is considered indiginous to Palestine?

Who are the indiginous people(s) of the Palestine region?


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RE: The Official Discussion Thread for who is considered indiginous to Palestine?
⁜→ Shusha, José, et al,

Ah yes, those little response buttons are a bit confusing at times.

RoccoR

Seriously, why did you "thank you" Jose' post?! What am I not understanding about your POV here?
(COMMENT)

I thanked José because he expressed himself with a constructive manner. I may not always agree with someone, but I appreciate all forthright contributions.

I realize that there is just an inordinate number of ways to view the Question (of Who are Indigenous Peoples?). (There is even a debate on the Question of "People" and Peoples." AND When the issue is expanded to the controversial topic of "People who inhabited a land (1) before it was conquered by colonial societies and who (2) consider themselves distinct from the societies currently governing those territories," then the discussion really jumps the rails. When we look at the Middle East, one has to ask the questions:

◈ How many times were the various territories in the Middle East subject to the political expansionist policies that sought to extend or maintain its control over the existing people, for economic or political gain; as well as commerical opportunities?

◈ Who were the original indigenous populations before the any of the Empires extended control over the territories of the Middle East?​

One thing we know for sure is that all the parties, with some gain to be had, over the Question of Palestine, shape, craft, mold and interpret anything and everything in order to establish some pre-existing claim and invalidate their opponents claim. I see that understanding in the comment by José.

We must remember that if the contemporary conflict starting with the establishment of Israel in 1948 continues on until 2948 (a millennium-long war), the1948 Israel will have secured an autonomous Jewish Land for only one third the time that the Ancient Egyptians fought and defended their Empire (3000 BC to 30 BC - the death of Cleopatra VII Philopator). We need to put this struggle and argument into perspective.

Most Respectfully,
R
<<<One thing we know for sure is that all the parties, with some gain to be had, over the Question of Palestine, shape, craft, mold and interpret anything and everything in order to establish some pre-existing claim and invalidate their opponents claim.>>>


Where exactly did you get this idea from?
 
Originally posted by Sixties Fan
No proofs of anything you said. Just words, and the ones in red are very underwhelming.

Show some proof to the pudding.

Semper necessitas probandi incumbit ei qui agit

"The burden of proof is always on the person who brings a claim in a dispute."

Sixties Fan claims arabs immigrated in large numbers to Palestine in the last 120 years so Sixties Fan has to prove her allegation not José or Tinmore.

Demanding others to disprove your own statement is known as "inversion of the burden of proof".

The problem is Sixties Fan cannot find any evidence to back up her allegation in any neutral, world renowned encyclopedia like Britannica, Larousse, etc...

All the "evidence" Sixties Fan presents comes either from zionist sources or straight out of her ass.
 
Originally posted by Sixties Fan
No proofs of anything you said. Just words, and the ones in red are very underwhelming.

Show some proof to the pudding.

Semper necessitas probandi incumbit ei qui agit

"The burden of proof is always on the person who brings a claim in a dispute."

Sixties Fan claims arabs immigrated in large numbers to Palestine in the last 120 years so Sixties Fan has to prove her allegation not José or Tinmore.

Demanding others to disprove your own statement is known as "inversion of the burden of proof".

The problem is Sixties Fan cannot find any evidence to back up her allegation in any neutral, world renowned encyclopedia like Britannica, Larousse, etc...

All the "evidence" Sixties Fan presents comes either from zionist sources or straight out of her ass.
Your Larger than life BS has nothing to do with the topic of this thread.
 
Palestine had been conquered and occupied many times. However, each conquest was not a new country with a whole new population. It was not a list of different countries. It was merely different periods in Palestine's history. Surely people have come and gone over the centuries. Some stayed and mingled into the original population. However, the Palestinians are an ancient people who go back to the beginning of time.

Well, sure. As long as you make the term "Palestinian" a meaningless term not based on the rights of self-determination of any specific cultural peoples. As long as you reduce "Palestinian" to "whoever happens to be living there at the moment". As in, some people have been living there "since the beginning of time", therefore anyone living there now is part of the "ancient people". And any who left (regardless of reason) is no longer part of the "ancient people".

Um. Okay. If you want to ditch the whole concept of self-determination for every cultural peoples, fine by me. You want to give equal weight to everyone who steps onto the soil, fine be me.. You just solved the right of return problem, the "settlements" problem, the Jerusalem problem, and really any problem that exists.
 
I thanked José because he expressed himself with a constructive manner. I may not always agree with someone, but I appreciate all forthright contributions.

Ah. Hero cookies for Team Palestine not being destructive.
 
RE: The Official Discussion Thread for who is considered indiginous to Palestine?
⁜→ Sixties Fan, et al,

It is based on (in my case) the reasoning that the truth is an accumulation of the various arguments (the premise of "indigenous population (undefined)" is only one piece of evidence (shaky as it is) for the conclusion that the Arab Palestinians had some undeniable claim to total sovereignty over the entirety of the territory formerly under the Mandate. No one single argument is representative of the truth. Certainly, the Israelis did not forcibly take any sovereign territory away from the Arab Palestinians. The Arab Palestinians never had control of any sovereign territory during the contemporary period of the 20th Century (not one single square inch). Thus during the 20th Century, the Arab Palestinians did not have any territory they can claim as lost or taken from them.

In this particular case, not once has the case for the Arab Palestinian been made for the premise that they are the "indigenous population", since there is no universally accepted definition for them to base this claim upon. Nor have they made a case for the Arab Palestinians having ever (EVER) had the "right and title" to the territory within such boundaries as was fixed by the Allied Powers. The territory was named by the Allied Powers, assumed under Treaty and International acceptance at the end of the Great War.

One thing we know for sure is that all the parties, with some gain to be had, over the Question of Palestine, shape, craft, mold and interpret anything and everything in order to establish some pre-existing claim and invalidate their opponents claim.
Where exactly did you get this idea from?
(COMMENT)

The conclusion to the deductive argument is a clear reality → is what it is; the territory was under the control of the Allied Powers is not just based upon the evidence given → it actual is the evidence given.

The Israelis never took a square inch of land way from the sovereign control of the Arab Palestinians. This again is not a fanciful argument (legal quibbling or some preponderance of evidence), → but is an actual fact.

This particular thread on the matter of "who is considered indigenous to Palestine" presupposes that the term "indigenous people" has some special and defined meaning particular to the Arab Palestinian over the of the Jewish People that established Israel. Obviously, this is NOT the case.

(SIDEBAR)

The Jewish People have suffered from historic injustices as a result of, inter alia, the dispossession of their lands, wealth and property, and territories, thus preventing them from development in accordance with their own needs and interests. In recognition of this fact, beyond those of the inhabitants of the Occupied Enemy Territory at the end of the Great War, the Allied Powers determined that a Jewish National Home was necessary.

Today, after seven decades of the Arab League attempting to crush this decision and to overturn the human development of the Jewish People, well beyond that experienced by any other Arab Country (MENA), Israel represents an outcome of that decision. The Israeli People have the best of the long and healthy life, education, scientific development, economic success and standard of living of any country MENA.

This is a testament of the validity of the decision behind the San Remo Convention of 1920.

Most Respectfully,
R
 
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Palestine had been conquered and occupied many times. However, each conquest was not a new country with a whole new population. It was not a list of different countries. It was merely different periods in Palestine's history. Surely people have come and gone over the centuries. Some stayed and mingled into the original population. However, the Palestinians are an ancient people who go back to the beginning of time.

Well, sure. As long as you make the term "Palestinian" a meaningless term not based on the rights of self-determination of any specific cultural peoples. As long as you reduce "Palestinian" to "whoever happens to be living there at the moment". As in, some people have been living there "since the beginning of time", therefore anyone living there now is part of the "ancient people". And any who left (regardless of reason) is no longer part of the "ancient people".

Um. Okay. If you want to ditch the whole concept of self-determination for every cultural peoples, fine by me. You want to give equal weight to everyone who steps onto the soil, fine be me.. You just solved the right of return problem, the "settlements" problem, the Jerusalem problem, and really any problem that exists.
As in, some people have been living there "since the beginning of time", therefore anyone living there now is part of the "ancient people". And any who left (regardless of reason) is no longer part of the "ancient people".
Where is the evidence that the Zionists who now occupy Palestine have any ancestors from the Holy Land?
 
Palestine had been conquered and occupied many times. However, each conquest was not a new country with a whole new population. It was not a list of different countries. It was merely different periods in Palestine's history. Surely people have come and gone over the centuries. Some stayed and mingled into the original population. However, the Palestinians are an ancient people who go back to the beginning of time.

Well, sure. As long as you make the term "Palestinian" a meaningless term not based on the rights of self-determination of any specific cultural peoples. As long as you reduce "Palestinian" to "whoever happens to be living there at the moment". As in, some people have been living there "since the beginning of time", therefore anyone living there now is part of the "ancient people". And any who left (regardless of reason) is no longer part of the "ancient people".

Um. Okay. If you want to ditch the whole concept of self-determination for every cultural peoples, fine by me. You want to give equal weight to everyone who steps onto the soil, fine be me.. You just solved the right of return problem, the "settlements" problem, the Jerusalem problem, and really any problem that exists.
As in, some people have been living there "since the beginning of time", therefore anyone living there now is part of the "ancient people". And any who left (regardless of reason) is no longer part of the "ancient people".
Where is the evidence that the Zionists who now occupy Palestine have any ancestors from the Holy Land?

Why is that a meaningful question?
 
The Israelis never took a square inch of land way from the sovereign control of the Arab Palestinians.
Sovereign control is a function of military might not legal right?

ARTICLE 4
States are juridically equal, enjoy the same rights, and have equal capacity in their exercise. The rights of each one do not depend upon the power which it possesses to assure its exercise, but upon the simple fact of its existence as a person under international law.

The Avalon Project : Convention on Rights and Duties of States (inter-American); December 26, 1933
 
The Israelis never took a square inch of land way from the sovereign control of the Arab Palestinians.
Sovereign control is a function of military might not legal right?

ARTICLE 4
States are juridically equal, enjoy the same rights, and have equal capacity in their exercise. The rights of each one do not depend upon the power which it possesses to assure its exercise, but upon the simple fact of its existence as a person under international law.

The Avalon Project : Convention on Rights and Duties of States (inter-American); December 26, 1933

Did you notice the term “states”?
 
RE: The Official Discussion Thread for who is considered indiginous to Palestine?
⁜→ Sixties Fan, et al,

I believe you to be wrong.

Sovereignty is NOT dependent on "military force or military strength.

Military might is a defense of the right of a State (to the exclusion of any other States) to exercise sole authority over its own territory. [Sovereign equality (supreme power or authority) applied to UN Members, Article 2(1) UN Charter)]

Sovereignty is but one of several component parts to "self-determination." "Self-determination encompasses so many is-sues—including individual and minority rights, regional autonomy, government repression, territorial integrity, state sovereignty, and claims to independence, to name but a few—the most difficult task in planning such a meeting was to determine which aspects of the issue would be addressed."
See: REPORT FROM ROUNDTABLE HELD IN CONJUNCTION WITH THE DEPARTMENT OF STATE’S POLICY PLANNING STAFF, US Institute for Peace, (Author: Patricia Carley)

The Israelis never took a square inch of the land way from the sovereign control of the Arab Palestinians.
Sovereign control is a function of military might not legal right?

ARTICLE 4
States are juridically equal, enjoy the same rights, and have equal capacity in their exercise. The rights of each one do not depend upon the power which it possesses to assure its exercise, but upon the simple fact of its existence as a person under international law.

The Avalon Project: Convention on Rights and Duties of States (inter-American); December 26, 1933
(COMMENT)

NOTE: "Judicial Equality" is NOT the same thing as "Sovereign Equality." The US, Egypt, Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, and Saudi Arabia are all Sovereign in their own right. It does not mean that any of them equal before the law (domestically or internationally).
Your argument has three important components:

First is to suggest that the sovereignty of Israel, a state declared independent since May 1948, is somehow deminishedbecause it was successfully able to defende its status as an independent nation not just once, but three times, against acts of aggression by the surrounding Arab League States and the terrorism orchestrated by the separated band of Arab Criminals.

Secondly - upon the simple fact of its existence - somehow prevented the Arab Palestinians from participating in the establishment of self-governing institutions.

The 1933 Montevideo Convention also says that "political existence of the state is independent of recognition by the other states. Even before recognition the state has the right to defend its integrity and independence, to provide for its conservation and prosperity, and consequently to organize itself as it sees fit, to legislate upon its interests, administer its services, and to define the jurisdiction and competence of its courts."​

There is absolutely NO limitation on the Israelis to establish their own nation under international law. This is especially true when combined with the fact that the Arrab Palestinians declined the offer to establish its own Article 22 self-governing institutions.

Most Respectfully,
R
 
Could we please not mix Who is Indigenous, with the Creation of Israel and the Mandate for Palestine. There is another thread for the second one.

Are the Arabs, any of them including the Palestinians INDIGENOUS to the Land of Israel, Ancient Canaan?

Are the Arabs descendants from ANY of the Seven Nations I mentioned in a previous post at the time Israel existed 3000 years ago, or did they happen to be there as a tribe, a Nation before 3000 years ago to be considered Indigenous of that land?

I posted the Nations and links to them. Got no answer.


Were the Philistines indigenous to Ancient Canaan, even though they created an Empire over 3000 years ago and conquered a lot of the land?


WHO is Indigenous?

What does Indigenous mean?
 
RE: The Official Discussion Thread for who is considered indiginous to Palestine?
⁜→ Sixties Fan, et al,

I believe you to be wrong.

Sovereignty is NOT dependent on "military force or military strength.

Military might is a defense of the right of a State (to the exclusion of any other States) to exercise sole authority over its own territory. [Sovereign equality (supreme power or authority) applied to UN Members, Article 2(1) UN Charter)]

Sovereignty is but one of several component parts to "self-determination." "Self-determination encompasses so many is-sues—including individual and minority rights, regional autonomy, government repression, territorial integrity, state sovereignty, and claims to independence, to name but a few—the most difficult task in planning such a meeting was to determine which aspects of the issue would be addressed."
See: REPORT FROM ROUNDTABLE HELD IN CONJUNCTION WITH THE DEPARTMENT OF STATE’S POLICY PLANNING STAFF, US Institute for Peace, (Author: Patricia Carley)

The Israelis never took a square inch of the land way from the sovereign control of the Arab Palestinians.
Sovereign control is a function of military might not legal right?

ARTICLE 4
States are juridically equal, enjoy the same rights, and have equal capacity in their exercise. The rights of each one do not depend upon the power which it possesses to assure its exercise, but upon the simple fact of its existence as a person under international law.

The Avalon Project: Convention on Rights and Duties of States (inter-American); December 26, 1933
(COMMENT)

NOTE: "Judicial Equality" is NOT the same thing as "Sovereign Equality." The US, Egypt, Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, and Saudi Arabia are all Sovereign in their own right. It does not mean that any of them equal before the law (domestically or internationally).
Your argument has three important components:

First is to suggest that the sovereignty of Israel, a state declared independent since May 1948, is somehow deminishedbecause it was successfully able to defende its status as an independent nation not just once, but three times, against acts of aggression by the surrounding Arab League States and the terrorism orchestrated by the separated band of Arab Criminals.

Secondly - upon the simple fact of its existence - somehow prevented the Arab Palestinians from participating in the establishment of self-governing institutions.

The 1933 Montevideo Convention also says that "political existence of the state is independent of recognition by the other states. Even before recognition the state has the right to defend its integrity and independence, to provide for its conservation and prosperity, and consequently to organize itself as it sees fit, to legislate upon its interests, administer its services, and to define the jurisdiction and competence of its courts."​

There is absolutely NO limitation on the Israelis to establish their own nation under international law. This is especially true when combined with the fact that the Arrab Palestinians declined the offer to establish its own Article 22 self-governing institutions.

Most Respectfully,
R
The 1933 Montevideo Convention also says that "political existence of the state is independent of recognition by the other states. Even before recognition the state has the right to defend its integrity and independence,
In 1948 about 80 Palestinian leaders from around the state declared independence from the Mandate for its own people, on its own land, and inside its own international borders.

Being under occupation does not negate a state. In 1949 the UN divided Palestine into three areas of occupation. Palestine has been occupied ever since.

Palestine has the right to defend its integrity and independence.
 
RE: The Official Discussion Thread for who is considered indiginous to Palestine?
⁜→ Sixties Fan, et al,

I believe you to be wrong.

Sovereignty is NOT dependent on "military force or military strength.

Military might is a defense of the right of a State (to the exclusion of any other States) to exercise sole authority over its own territory. [Sovereign equality (supreme power or authority) applied to UN Members, Article 2(1) UN Charter)]

Sovereignty is but one of several component parts to "self-determination." "Self-determination encompasses so many is-sues—including individual and minority rights, regional autonomy, government repression, territorial integrity, state sovereignty, and claims to independence, to name but a few—the most difficult task in planning such a meeting was to determine which aspects of the issue would be addressed."
See: REPORT FROM ROUNDTABLE HELD IN CONJUNCTION WITH THE DEPARTMENT OF STATE’S POLICY PLANNING STAFF, US Institute for Peace, (Author: Patricia Carley)

The Israelis never took a square inch of the land way from the sovereign control of the Arab Palestinians.
Sovereign control is a function of military might not legal right?

ARTICLE 4
States are juridically equal, enjoy the same rights, and have equal capacity in their exercise. The rights of each one do not depend upon the power which it possesses to assure its exercise, but upon the simple fact of its existence as a person under international law.

The Avalon Project: Convention on Rights and Duties of States (inter-American); December 26, 1933
(COMMENT)

NOTE: "Judicial Equality" is NOT the same thing as "Sovereign Equality." The US, Egypt, Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, and Saudi Arabia are all Sovereign in their own right. It does not mean that any of them equal before the law (domestically or internationally).
Your argument has three important components:

First is to suggest that the sovereignty of Israel, a state declared independent since May 1948, is somehow deminishedbecause it was successfully able to defende its status as an independent nation not just once, but three times, against acts of aggression by the surrounding Arab League States and the terrorism orchestrated by the separated band of Arab Criminals.

Secondly - upon the simple fact of its existence - somehow prevented the Arab Palestinians from participating in the establishment of self-governing institutions.

The 1933 Montevideo Convention also says that "political existence of the state is independent of recognition by the other states. Even before recognition the state has the right to defend its integrity and independence, to provide for its conservation and prosperity, and consequently to organize itself as it sees fit, to legislate upon its interests, administer its services, and to define the jurisdiction and competence of its courts."​

There is absolutely NO limitation on the Israelis to establish their own nation under international law. This is especially true when combined with the fact that the Arrab Palestinians declined the offer to establish its own Article 22 self-governing institutions.

Most Respectfully,
R
The 1933 Montevideo Convention also says that "political existence of the state is independent of recognition by the other states. Even before recognition the state has the right to defend its integrity and independence,
In 1948 about 80 Palestinian leaders from around the state declared independence from the Mandate for its own people, on its own land, and inside its own international borders.

Being under occupation does not negate a state. In 1949 the UN divided Palestine into three areas of occupation. Palestine has been occupied ever since.

Palestine has the right to defend its integrity and independence.

What “Pal’istanian leaders” from around what state? Are you referring, as usual, to the farcical State of Pal’istan™️ That was created by the Treaty of Lausanne?

What land is under soverign control by the pseudo-government of the non-existent “State of Pal’istan”?
 
RE: The Official Discussion Thread for who is considered indiginous to Palestine?
⁜→ Sixties Fan, et al,

I believe you to be wrong.

Sovereignty is NOT dependent on "military force or military strength.

Military might is a defense of the right of a State (to the exclusion of any other States) to exercise sole authority over its own territory. [Sovereign equality (supreme power or authority) applied to UN Members, Article 2(1) UN Charter)]

Sovereignty is but one of several component parts to "self-determination." "Self-determination encompasses so many is-sues—including individual and minority rights, regional autonomy, government repression, territorial integrity, state sovereignty, and claims to independence, to name but a few—the most difficult task in planning such a meeting was to determine which aspects of the issue would be addressed."
See: REPORT FROM ROUNDTABLE HELD IN CONJUNCTION WITH THE DEPARTMENT OF STATE’S POLICY PLANNING STAFF, US Institute for Peace, (Author: Patricia Carley)

The Israelis never took a square inch of the land way from the sovereign control of the Arab Palestinians.
Sovereign control is a function of military might not legal right?

ARTICLE 4
States are juridically equal, enjoy the same rights, and have equal capacity in their exercise. The rights of each one do not depend upon the power which it possesses to assure its exercise, but upon the simple fact of its existence as a person under international law.

The Avalon Project: Convention on Rights and Duties of States (inter-American); December 26, 1933
(COMMENT)

NOTE: "Judicial Equality" is NOT the same thing as "Sovereign Equality." The US, Egypt, Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, and Saudi Arabia are all Sovereign in their own right. It does not mean that any of them equal before the law (domestically or internationally).
Your argument has three important components:

First is to suggest that the sovereignty of Israel, a state declared independent since May 1948, is somehow deminishedbecause it was successfully able to defende its status as an independent nation not just once, but three times, against acts of aggression by the surrounding Arab League States and the terrorism orchestrated by the separated band of Arab Criminals.

Secondly - upon the simple fact of its existence - somehow prevented the Arab Palestinians from participating in the establishment of self-governing institutions.

The 1933 Montevideo Convention also says that "political existence of the state is independent of recognition by the other states. Even before recognition the state has the right to defend its integrity and independence, to provide for its conservation and prosperity, and consequently to organize itself as it sees fit, to legislate upon its interests, administer its services, and to define the jurisdiction and competence of its courts."​

There is absolutely NO limitation on the Israelis to establish their own nation under international law. This is especially true when combined with the fact that the Arrab Palestinians declined the offer to establish its own Article 22 self-governing institutions.

Most Respectfully,
R
The 1933 Montevideo Convention also says that "political existence of the state is independent of recognition by the other states. Even before recognition the state has the right to defend its integrity and independence,
In 1948 about 80 Palestinian leaders from around the state declared independence from the Mandate for its own people, on its own land, and inside its own international borders.

Being under occupation does not negate a state. In 1949 the UN divided Palestine into three areas of occupation. Palestine has been occupied ever since.

Palestine has the right to defend its integrity and independence.
WRONG thread.

Please transfer the Mandate discussion to the other thread.
Thank you !
 
RE: The Official Discussion Thread for who is considered indiginous to Palestine?
⁜→ Sixties Fan, et al,

I believe you to be wrong.

Sovereignty is NOT dependent on "military force or military strength.

Military might is a defense of the right of a State (to the exclusion of any other States) to exercise sole authority over its own territory. [Sovereign equality (supreme power or authority) applied to UN Members, Article 2(1) UN Charter)]

Sovereignty is but one of several component parts to "self-determination." "Self-determination encompasses so many is-sues—including individual and minority rights, regional autonomy, government repression, territorial integrity, state sovereignty, and claims to independence, to name but a few—the most difficult task in planning such a meeting was to determine which aspects of the issue would be addressed."
See: REPORT FROM ROUNDTABLE HELD IN CONJUNCTION WITH THE DEPARTMENT OF STATE’S POLICY PLANNING STAFF, US Institute for Peace, (Author: Patricia Carley)

The Israelis never took a square inch of the land way from the sovereign control of the Arab Palestinians.
Sovereign control is a function of military might not legal right?

ARTICLE 4
States are juridically equal, enjoy the same rights, and have equal capacity in their exercise. The rights of each one do not depend upon the power which it possesses to assure its exercise, but upon the simple fact of its existence as a person under international law.

The Avalon Project: Convention on Rights and Duties of States (inter-American); December 26, 1933
(COMMENT)

NOTE: "Judicial Equality" is NOT the same thing as "Sovereign Equality." The US, Egypt, Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, and Saudi Arabia are all Sovereign in their own right. It does not mean that any of them equal before the law (domestically or internationally).
Your argument has three important components:

First is to suggest that the sovereignty of Israel, a state declared independent since May 1948, is somehow deminishedbecause it was successfully able to defende its status as an independent nation not just once, but three times, against acts of aggression by the surrounding Arab League States and the terrorism orchestrated by the separated band of Arab Criminals.

Secondly - upon the simple fact of its existence - somehow prevented the Arab Palestinians from participating in the establishment of self-governing institutions.

The 1933 Montevideo Convention also says that "political existence of the state is independent of recognition by the other states. Even before recognition the state has the right to defend its integrity and independence, to provide for its conservation and prosperity, and consequently to organize itself as it sees fit, to legislate upon its interests, administer its services, and to define the jurisdiction and competence of its courts."​

There is absolutely NO limitation on the Israelis to establish their own nation under international law. This is especially true when combined with the fact that the Arrab Palestinians declined the offer to establish its own Article 22 self-governing institutions.

Most Respectfully,
R
The 1933 Montevideo Convention also says that "political existence of the state is independent of recognition by the other states. Even before recognition the state has the right to defend its integrity and independence,
In 1948 about 80 Palestinian leaders from around the state declared independence from the Mandate for its own people, on its own land, and inside its own international borders.

Being under occupation does not negate a state. In 1949 the UN divided Palestine into three areas of occupation. Palestine has been occupied ever since.

Palestine has the right to defend its integrity and independence.
WRONG thread.

Please transfer the Mandate discussion to the other thread.
Thank you !
OK.

The NEWER Official Discussion Thread for the creation of Israel, the UN and the British Mandate
 
Where is the evidence that the Zionists who now occupy Palestine have any ancestors from the Holy Land?

This is only a little twist on the whole DNA argument, merely substituting "ancestors" for "genetics". You're asking the wrong question, I suspect deliberately.

The requirements for indigeneity are: group of people with a distinct culture, who originated on and have historical ties to a specific territory, pre-invasion, pre-colonization. The test whether a specific individual belongs to the group is self-identification and acceptance.

There is nothing about ancestors or ancestry. How would you even measure that, anyway? How far back would those ancestors have to go to be valid? One generation? Five? A hundred? What happens to the people who don't have the right "ancestry"? And if we apply this to the Jewish people, shouldn't we also apply this to the Arab Palestinians? What objective "ancestry" criteria are you suggesting?
 
Where is the evidence that the Zionists who now occupy Palestine have any ancestors from the Holy Land?

This is only a little twist on the whole DNA argument, merely substituting "ancestors" for "genetics". You're asking the wrong question, I suspect deliberately.

The requirements for indigeneity are: group of people with a distinct culture, who originated on and have historical ties to a specific territory, pre-invasion, pre-colonization. The test whether a specific individual belongs to the group is self-identification and acceptance.

There is nothing about ancestors or ancestry. How would you even measure that, anyway? How far back would those ancestors have to go to be valid? One generation? Five? A hundred? What happens to the people who don't have the right "ancestry"? And if we apply this to the Jewish people, shouldn't we also apply this to the Arab Palestinians? What objective "ancestry" criteria are you suggesting?
The point is that "returning" to a land where you had no ancestors in ludicrous.
 
Where is the evidence that the Zionists who now occupy Palestine have any ancestors from the Holy Land?

This is only a little twist on the whole DNA argument, merely substituting "ancestors" for "genetics". You're asking the wrong question, I suspect deliberately.

The requirements for indigeneity are: group of people with a distinct culture, who originated on and have historical ties to a specific territory, pre-invasion, pre-colonization. The test whether a specific individual belongs to the group is self-identification and acceptance.

There is nothing about ancestors or ancestry. How would you even measure that, anyway? How far back would those ancestors have to go to be valid? One generation? Five? A hundred? What happens to the people who don't have the right "ancestry"? And if we apply this to the Jewish people, shouldn't we also apply this to the Arab Palestinians? What objective "ancestry" criteria are you suggesting?
The point is that "returning" to a land where you had no ancestors in ludicrous.
Which is exactly what the Arabs are. Ludicrous.

Not only their ancestral religion, culture and dealing with other peoples did not start in Ancient Canaan, their "Right Of Return" to what is now Israel is non existent exactly because their people and culture did not start there.

The Jewish people have more than proven that their religion, culture and dealings with other peoples and invaders originated in ancient Canaan.

Go visit the Palestinian Museum in Ramallah . The proof of Arab Palestinian indigenous status to Ancient Canaan is all there.
 
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