Paradoxical#1
Platinum Member
- Apr 20, 2025
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He was following what the priests and monks told him that delighted his imagined God based on scripture, which by the way hasn't changed. All that did change is that your evil church fathers in the 60s somehow found that they had a "deeper understanding" of scripture and women were no longer chattels or property and equal to what .......3/5ths of that of a male?Yeah, right. I’ve heard your story. You blame Christianity instead of an overbearing father. As near as I can tell you are just like him.
Genesis 3:16: After the Fall, God says to Eve, “Your desire will be for your husband, and he will rule over you.”
Numbers 30:3-15: A woman’s vow could be nullified by her father or husband.
Ephesians 5:22-24 (though in the New Testament, it references Old Testament principles): Wives are instructed to submit to their husbands.
Leviticus 27:1-8: In the context of vows and valuations for dedicating people to God, a male’s value is set higher than a female’s (e.g., 50 shekels for a man aged 20-60 vs. 30 shekels for a woman).
Deuteronomy 22:28-29: A man who violates an unbetrothed virgin must marry her and pay her father, which can be seen as treating women as property, though it also ensured her provision in a society where virginity affected marriageability.