Zone1 "Son of MAN" is?

Cougarbear

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What does the Lord mean when he says, "And you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Mighty One (Father)? Most sites on the subject will say he's the Son of Man because he was born huMAN and over came death to be Lord God. But, I'm wondering if this is really the case and pose this. What if there is a word missing? So-called Christians would not understand. But, LDS should. What if it should be Son of the Glorified Man. Father in Heaven is a Glorified man. "As man is now God once was. As God is now man may become." Any thoughts on this?
 
We have to remember that these writing were written long before even the Dark Ages and thus superstition and the belief in all sorts of "mysterious things" were rampant. The only reason people still believe the ramblings is because it has been shoved down their throats since infancy.
 
What does the Lord mean when he says, "And you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Mighty One (Father)? Most sites on the subject will say he's the Son of Man because he was born huMAN and over came death to be Lord God. But, I'm wondering if this is really the case and pose this. What if there is a word missing? So-called Christians would not understand. But, LDS should. What if it should be Son of the Glorified Man. Father in Heaven is a Glorified man. "As man is now God once was. As God is now man may become." Any thoughts on this?
Jesus called himself the "Son of Man" to emphasize his humanity and identify with mankind, while simultaneously claiming a divine, messianic role from Daniel 7:13-14. It was his favorite self-designation, highlighting his role as the suffering servant who came to save, yet would return with authority to judge.

Key Reasons Jesus Used This Title:
  • Humanity and Humility: The title emphasizes that Jesus was truly human, having "nowhere to lay his head," and was born of a woman. It contrasts with his deity as the "Son of God".
  • Messianic Fulfillment:It refers directly to Daniel 7:13-14, where one "like a son of man" is given authority, glory, and an everlasting kingdom, identifying himself as the awaited Messiah
    .
    • Authority on Earth: Jesus used the term to show he had authority, as the Son of Man, to forgive sins and act as Lord of the Sabbath.
    • Suffering and Betrayal: He often used this title when prophesying his suffering, death, and resurrection, showing his human experience of pain.
    • Future Judge: The term relates to his future role in returning "on the clouds of heaven" to sit at the right hand of God and judge the world.
While often interpreted today simply as "a human," in the first century, this phrase was deeply understood as a claim to divine authority and Messianic identity.
 
What does the Lord mean when he says, "And you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Mighty One (Father)? Most sites on the subject will say he's the Son of Man because he was born huMAN and over came death to be Lord God. But, I'm wondering if this is really the case and pose this. What if there is a word missing? So-called Christians would not understand. But, LDS should. What if it should be Son of the Glorified Man. Father in Heaven is a Glorified man. "As man is now God once was. As God is now man may become." Any thoughts on this?

Yes. It's heretical.
 
Jesus called himself the "Son of Man" to emphasize his humanity and identify with mankind, while simultaneously claiming a divine, messianic role from Daniel 7:13-14. It was his favorite self-designation, highlighting his role as the suffering servant who came to save, yet would return with authority to judge.

Key Reasons Jesus Used This Title:
  • Humanity and Humility: The title emphasizes that Jesus was truly human, having "nowhere to lay his head," and was born of a woman. It contrasts with his deity as the "Son of God".
  • Messianic Fulfillment:It refers directly to Daniel 7:13-14, where one "like a son of man" is given authority, glory, and an everlasting kingdom, identifying himself as the awaited Messiah
    .
    • Authority on Earth: Jesus used the term to show he had authority, as the Son of Man, to forgive sins and act as Lord of the Sabbath.
    • Suffering and Betrayal: He often used this title when prophesying his suffering, death, and resurrection, showing his human experience of pain.
    • Future Judge: The term relates to his future role in returning "on the clouds of heaven" to sit at the right hand of God and judge the world.
While often interpreted today simply as "a human," in the first century, this phrase was deeply understood as a claim to divine authority and Messianic identity.
Yes, typical AI jargon because mainstream Christianity has said so. I’m suggesting that it’s some early Catholic Priest defined it this way and that all the Lord was saying was I’m the Son of a glorified man, my Father in Heaven. If he was just referring to himself being a humble suffering human the he would have left off the “Son”’and said I’m a
Man like you. Eliminate your normalcy bias for just a second.
 
Yes. It's heretical.
Yes, it’s different than the Christian apostasy view. But, why interject “Son” into his statement? Son of man or Son of (the) Man is more correct. All the examples of scripture are also misinterpreted and understood due to apostasy.
 
Yes, typical AI jargon because mainstream Christianity has said so. I’m suggesting that it’s some early Catholic Priest defined it this way and that all the Lord was saying was I’m the Son of a glorified man, my Father in Heaven. If he was just referring to himself being a humble suffering human the he would have left off the “Son”’and said I’m a
Man like you. Eliminate your normalcy bias for just a second.
Jesus called himself the son of man.

Daniel 7:13-14
As the visions during the night continued, I saw coming with the clouds of heaven. One like a son of man. When he reached the Ancient of Days and was presented before him, He received dominion, splendor, and kingship; all nations, peoples and tongues will serve him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that shall not pass away, his kingship, one that shall not be destroyed.
 
Yes, it’s different than the Christian apostasy view. But, why interject “Son” into his statement? Son of man or Son of (the) Man is more correct. All the examples of scripture are also misinterpreted and understood due to apostasy.
Jesus referred to himself as the "Son of Man" 81 times in the four Gospels. It was his most frequently used title for himself, highlighting both his humanity and his role as the divine, messianic figure described in Daniel 7.
  • Synoptic Gospels Usage: The phrase appears 30 times in Matthew, 14 in Mark, and 25 in Luke.
  • John Usage: It appears 12 times in the Gospel of John.
  • Significance: While it highlights his humanity, it was also understood as a title for the Messiah who has authority to forgive sins and will return in glory.
  • Unique Usage:Almost exclusively, this title is used by Jesus to refer to himself, rather than being used by others to describe him
    .
 
Jesus referred to himself as the "Son of Man" 81 times in the four Gospels. It was his most frequently used title for himself, highlighting both his humanity and his role as the divine, messianic figure described in Daniel 7.
  • Synoptic Gospels Usage: The phrase appears 30 times in Matthew, 14 in Mark, and 25 in Luke.
  • John Usage: It appears 12 times in the Gospel of John.
  • Significance: While it highlights his humanity, it was also understood as a title for the Messiah who has authority to forgive sins and will return in glory.
  • Unique Usage:Almost exclusively, this title is used by Jesus to refer to himself, rather than being used by others to describe him
    .
Yes, and I’m the son on my dad too and have said so thousands of times. Jesus refers himself to the son of his father 81 times. I’m not disputing that. I’m disputing the interpretation that “Man” specifically refers to Jesus. And, everything you and other so called scholars do to but when you explain the “Man” part you say it refers to his human side. I say it refers to his Glorified side just like his Father is a glorified man.
 
Is he trying to make God a man before becoming God to support the LDS belief that one day they will become gods too?
Then stop with the AI quotes and justify your claim that “Man” refers to Jesus.
You do know Jesus last name was not Christ. It’s really Jesus the Christ. Now, prove the “Man” part doesn’t refer to His Father.
 
Yes, it’s different than the Christian apostasy view. But, why interject “Son” into his statement? Son of man or Son of (the) Man is more correct. All the examples of scripture are also misinterpreted and understood due to apostasy.

Why in the WORLD would Jesus need Joseph Smith to perfect whatever? Geez
 
Is he trying to make God a man before becoming God to support the LDS belief that one day they will become gods too?

With their own planet, don't forget that part.

They can believe whatever they like, naturally. I just am not a fan when they assert they're Christian.
 
Why in the WORLD would Jesus need Joseph Smith to perfect whatever? Geez
Because you had a bunch of people over the weekend protesting that Trump is a king without being thrown in Guantanamo Bay or shot dead for protesting as they do in real king countries. The world back in the Dark Ages of Catholicism were forced to believe only one way or be tortured or killed. Popes were kings.
By the way, Joseph Smith never mentioned what I did? Why are you going to that? Because you understand what I’m saying and that just can’t happen, right? Our Church teaches “Man” refers to the state of Jesus before his resurrection. I’m saying there is nothing stating this. We know Jesus was a human in human conditions. The three words I believe doesn’t mean that. I believe he was saying He is his Father’s Son and will be glorified as his Father is.
 
With their own planet, don't forget that part.

They can believe whatever they like, naturally. I just am not a fan when they assert they're Christian.
Right. Started by a con man who knew had to run cons. I think if I belonged to that religion I would keep my mouth shut when it came to accusing Christians of apostasy. That's something only the dumb ones or the true believers would do. But then again, they are one and the same.
 
15th post
Right. Started by a con man who knew had to run cons. I think if I belonged to that religion I would keep my mouth shut when it came to accusing Christians of apostasy. That's something only the dumb ones or the true believers would do. But then again, they are one and the same.
Did Prophets in the OT sin and get into trouble with the people and God? Yes! Many were stoned to death for preaching what the Lord told them to preach. Joseph smith was just shot with a gun for preaching what the Lord told him to preach. He’s in great company.

How about the apostles? Any that were not good Jews or sinned? A murderer? A thief and con-man? Tax collector?

Your attacks are through the eyes of 2026. And, your attacks have been shown to all be false.
 
Did Prophets in the OT sin and get into trouble with the people and God? Yes! Many were stoned to death for preaching what the Lord told them to preach. Joseph smith was just shot with a gun for preaching what the Lord told him to preach. He’s in great company.

How about the apostles? Any that were not good Jews or sinned? A murderer? A thief and con-man? Tax collector?

Your attacks are through the eyes of 2026. And, your attacks have been shown to all be false.
You haven't seen my attack yet. But if you keep running your mouth, you will.
 
What does the Lord mean when he says, "And you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Mighty One (Father)? Most sites on the subject will say he's the Son of Man because he was born huMAN and over came death to be Lord God. But, I'm wondering if this is really the case and pose this. What if there is a word missing? So-called Christians would not understand. But, LDS should. What if it should be Son of the Glorified Man. Father in Heaven is a Glorified man. "As man is now God once was. As God is now man may become." Any thoughts on this?
He was Lord before He came here. Him being the Son of Man was Him fulfilling Jewish Law. If a Jewish man lost his fortune, a relative could redeem it for him. The relative is called a Kinsman Redeemer.
Christ fulfilled that Law by becoming a relative of Adam with the capability of returning dominion over the earth back to man and out of Satan's grasp.
And when the Age of the Gentile comes to a close, Christ is going to return to take control of the earth he shed His blood to salvage...
 
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