Is that your theory? It's Jewish organizations, "public properties" as in the British government and Palestinian authorities, which existed under British mandate, and then what? Only Mexicans perhaps owned the rest of the properties, not Arab Palestinians? Pathetic. How desperate and cynical can you be? You're ridiculous.
My theory is the land was owned by the Ottomans, for the most part, and Jews started buying some. Did the Arabs own 5% or 10%? Maybe?
But those stupid maps that show a mostly green, "Palestinian" owned area are a lie.
Is it sad that after the Ottomans gave up the land that the Arabs didn't get to own 94%...on top of owning 100% of Jordan? Sure. But they were offered about half and pouted, rioted, stomped their feet and said they wanted it all. They fucked up. They lost. It happens.
And after every offer since then to give them land for peace they pouted, rioted, stomped their feet and said they wanted it all. They fucked up again. And they continue to fuck up.
How much land has that gotten them? All of it? The half they were offered? Or much less?