Leviticus 18-20, yes or no?

[Likkmee]

I don't care.

It's none of my business (or anyone else's so far as I can tell) where others derive pleasure as long as it does not bring harm to me or mine.

Crowley said "do as ye will and harm none". You can eat a hit of acid with him when you meet.

 

[justinacolmena]

I'm I supposed to just be able to understand your quoting?

If I could just understand your quoting, I wouldn't need the quotes in the first place. What is it you're trying to say? And try with YOUR OWN WORDS this time.

Luke 17:34–37

That dude is going to be hauled off that other dude's butt and his body will be dumped in the desert somewhere.

Same with that woman who won't stop grinding that other woman's face.

 

[frigidweirdo]

I'm I supposed to just be able to understand your quoting?

If I could just understand your quoting, I wouldn't need the quotes in the first place. What is it you're trying to say? And try with YOUR OWN WORDS this time.

Luke 17:34–37

That dude is going to be hauled off that other dude's butt and his body will be dumped in the desert somewhere.

Same with that woman who won't stop grinding that other woman's face.

So?

 

[C_Clayton_Jones]

We never were bound by Jewish civil code. Or Jewish ceremonial code or Jewish dietary code or any other Jewish code. Gentiles never were subject to temple law. And no one is subject to it now that it no longer exists.

Yet Christians use this dogma nonetheless to justify secular laws intended to discriminate against gay Americans.

Christians can’t have it both ways.

 

[C_Clayton_Jones]

I beg to differ. Christian law - the two commandments of Christ - are more succinct and practical than any law I've ever seen.

Yet Christians use ‘Christian law’ nonetheless to justify secular laws intended to discriminate against gay Americans, deny women their right to privacy, and violate the Establishment Clause of the First Amendment.

‘Christian law’ is indeed succinct and practical for Christians when they seek to discriminate and codify religious dogma into secular laws to the disadvantage of others.

Given the propensity for authoritarianism common to far too many Christians, secular laws are indeed far more superior to ‘Christian ‘law.’

 

[C_Clayton_Jones]

Love thy neighbor as theyself and Love God with all your heart.

And yet again – far too many Christians fail to follow this dogma; they hate their fellow man perceived to be ‘godless,’ ‘sinners,’ and ‘atheists.’

And that these Christians who hate their fellow man might constitute a non-representative minority of Christians, they nonetheless wield an unwarranted amount of political power detrimental to the Nation and the American people.

The Christian right is the true bane of America – not gays, women who have abortions, or those free from religion.

 

[justinacolmena]

So?

The homosexuality Jesus is talking about is not consensual, because the victim's consent is being obtained fraudulently or else the victim is being induced or compelled to consent.

Yet Christians use this dogma nonetheless to justify secular laws intended to discriminate against gay Americans.

Christians can’t have it both ways.

It was preached already in the 19th century that the devil of marriage lies in the large intestine.

Given the propensity for authoritarianism common to far too many Christians, secular laws are indeed far more superior to ‘Christian ‘law.

Christians, whatever they believe are going to preach from the pulpit and at the very worst tell you you are going to hell if you don't repent — that cannot be the voice of authoritarianism or any dictatorship of the proletariat — whereas secular laws intended to impose fines and inflict prison sentences are actively used to create a hell already on earth for suspects and defendants.

 

[justinacolmena]

their fellow man perceived to be ‘godless,’ ‘sinners,’ and ‘atheists.’

Cut that Marxist crap with the "fellow man" shit out. It isn't appropriate to play golf in church.

 

[C_Clayton_Jones]

So?

The homosexuality Jesus is talking about is not consensual, because the victim's consent is being obtained fraudulently or else the victim is being induced or compelled to consent.

Yet Christians use this dogma nonetheless to justify secular laws intended to discriminate against gay Americans.

Christians can’t have it both ways.

It was preached already in the 19th century that the devil of marriage lies in the large intestine.

Given the propensity for authoritarianism common to far too many Christians, secular laws are indeed far more superior to ‘Christian ‘law.

Christians, whatever they believe are going to preach from the pulpit and at the very worst tell you you are going to hell if you don't repent — that cannot be the voice of authoritarianism or any dictatorship of the proletariat — whereas secular laws intended to impose fines and inflict prison sentences are actively used to create a hell already on earth for suspects and defendants.

As are conservatives in general, the Christian right is infamous for its hypocrisy.

 

[frigidweirdo]

So?

The homosexuality Jesus is talking about is not consensual, because the victim's consent is being obtained fraudulently or else the victim is being induced or compelled to consent.

Yet Christians use this dogma nonetheless to justify secular laws intended to discriminate against gay Americans.

Christians can’t have it both ways.

It was preached already in the 19th century that the devil of marriage lies in the large intestine.

Given the propensity for authoritarianism common to far too many Christians, secular laws are indeed far more superior to ‘Christian ‘law.

Christians, whatever they believe are going to preach from the pulpit and at the very worst tell you you are going to hell if you don't repent — that cannot be the voice of authoritarianism or any dictatorship of the proletariat — whereas secular laws intended to impose fines and inflict prison sentences are actively used to create a hell already on earth for suspects and defendants.

Then again so many Christians believe the Bible says that gay people are inherently bad.

 

[Clyde 154]

Leviticus 18:22 (different versions)

"“Do not practice homosexuality, having sex with another man as with a woman. It is a detestable sin."

"Thou shalt not lie with mankind as with womankind: because it is an abomination."

"It is disgusting for a man to have sex with another man."

"“Men, you must not have sexual relations with another man as with a woman. That is a terrible sin!"

And Leviticus 20:10 (different versions)

"If any man commit adultery with the wife of another, and defile his neighbour's wife: let them: be put to death, both the adulterer and the adulteress."

"If anyone will have committed sexual acts with the wife of another, or will have perpetrated adultery with his neighbor's spouse, they shall die a death, both the adulterer and the adulteress."

"If a man commits adultery with the wife of a fellow-Israelite, both he and the woman shall be put to death."

"And the man that committeth adultery with another man's wife, even he that committeth adultery with his neighbour's wife, the adulterer and the adulteress shall surely be put to death."

Two sections of the same part of the Bible. And yet the religious right manages to be extremely anti-gay because of Leviticus 18:22 but will elect a triple adulterer in spite of 20:10.

So, which is it? Are you pro-Leviticus or anti-Leviticus as a Christian?

I always find it amusing when someone charges others of being some type of bigot for wanting to find fault with one group while defending another. The funny part........you are attempting to favor the sin of homosexuality over the sin of adulty when the wages of ALL SIN IS DEATH, and then are charging others of HYPOCRISY.

Everyone sins at some point in their life, either a sin of omission or a sin of commission......and the same penalty applies..... DEATH, unless the Grace of Jesus Christ is accepted and there is a repenting of those sins (turn away).

Do know whether Mr. Trump has made peace with the Lord, has he repented or is he still unrepentant? When did you first notice you had this gift of reading the thoughts of others?


The question is why should anyone apply LAW that was expressly intended for only one peoples on earth? When you study the Holy Scriptures you learn that God as had 3 sets of laws in effect at different periods of time. 1. The Patriarchal 2. The Mosaical and 3. Christ's law

Just like the majority who fail to comprehend these 3 distinctly different laws.......you are not distinguishing the application thereof. Example: The United States system of jurisprudence is founded upon some principles established under British Common Laws.......the majority of which can be found when one studies Blackstone. Would you declare that law drafted expressly for the British Empire was applicable to the citizens of the United States today.......or only that which was carried forward by the citizens of the U.S. from a British foundation?

In other words..........if Law from the Old Law of Moses is not carried over into New Testament Law, its not applicable and is good only as a teaching tool. Its true that both homosexuality and adulty are both taboo in the New Testament.........the penalties that were in effect from the Old Laws no longer apply, we live under the LAW OF GRACE (forgiveness). The only sin that can't be forgiven is a sin that remains UNREPENTANT.

In other words .......... none of the passages that were presented from Leviticus is applicable today as these laws were applicable only to the Hebrew Nation and the scriptures themselves point out this fact.

Deut. 5: 2-3 points out that these early laws was for the nation of Israel only. By following the Old Law the Israelites were bound to God. -- Ex. 19:5-6. The LAW made Israel "distinct" among the world's nation.........no other nation had law such as was reserved for Israel......the Law at that time was preparing the Gentiles of the world for a new Law a new covenant that would be inclusive to everyone. -- Deut 4:5-8

The scriptures point out that these Old Laws were but temporary. -- Jer. 31:31-34. Jesus stated that the Old Law would be in effect only to the point in which He fulfilled or completed it -- Matt. 5:17-18

Jesus' very purpose was to fulfill the Old Law and bring it to an end and usher in a New Law or New Covenant as was prophesied in Jer. 31 (Luke 24:44)

CHRIST IS THE ENDING OF THOSE OLD LAWS (Romans 10:4).

 

[evenifigoalone]

So far as the laws of Leviticus goes, they were specific laws for a specific nation at a specific period in history. While some of the same principles remain, and the main overarching points (love God and love others) definitely remains, they're not meant to be applied today.
The commandment against adultery and same sex sex remains (these are repeated in the New Testament books), but the commandment to stone those who practice those things does not. (For the record I'm a same sex attracted person, but I do believe I am strictly forbidden from acting on my feelings.)

TektonTV on YouTube studies these things on a scholarly level and has a couple videos on it:

 

[C_Clayton_Jones]

Leviticus 18:22 (different versions)

"“Do not practice homosexuality, having sex with another man as with a woman. It is a detestable sin."

"Thou shalt not lie with mankind as with womankind: because it is an abomination."

"It is disgusting for a man to have sex with another man."

"“Men, you must not have sexual relations with another man as with a woman. That is a terrible sin!"

And Leviticus 20:10 (different versions)

"If any man commit adultery with the wife of another, and defile his neighbour's wife: let them: be put to death, both the adulterer and the adulteress."

"If anyone will have committed sexual acts with the wife of another, or will have perpetrated adultery with his neighbor's spouse, they shall die a death, both the adulterer and the adulteress."

"If a man commits adultery with the wife of a fellow-Israelite, both he and the woman shall be put to death."

"And the man that committeth adultery with another man's wife, even he that committeth adultery with his neighbour's wife, the adulterer and the adulteress shall surely be put to death."

Two sections of the same part of the Bible. And yet the religious right manages to be extremely anti-gay because of Leviticus 18:22 but will elect a triple adulterer in spite of 20:10.

So, which is it? Are you pro-Leviticus or anti-Leviticus as a Christian?

The question is why should anyone apply LAW that was expressly intended for only one peoples on earth? When you study the Holy Scriptures you learn that God as had 3 sets of laws in effect at different periods of time. 1. The Patriarchal 2. The Mosaical and 3. Christ's law

Just like the majority who fail to comprehend these 3 distinctly different laws.......you are not distinguishing the application thereof. Example: The United States system of jurisprudence is founded upon some principles established under British Common Laws.......the majority of which can be found when one studies Blackstone. Would you declare that law drafted expressly for the British Empire was applicable to the citizens of the United States today.......or only that which was carried forward by the citizens of the U.S. from a British foundation?

In other words..........if Law from the Old Law of Moses is not carried over into New Testament Law, its not applicable and is good only as a teaching tool. Its true that both homosexuality and adulty are both taboo in the New Testament.........the penalties that were in effect from the Old Laws no longer apply, we live under the LAW OF GRACE (forgiveness). The only sin that can't be forgiven is a sin that remains UNREPENTANT.

In other words .......... none of the passages that were presented from Leviticus is applicable today as these laws were applicable only to the Hebrew Nation and the scriptures themselves point out this fact.

Deut. 5: 2-3 points out that these early laws was for the nation of Israel only. By following the Old Law the Israelites were bound to God. -- Ex. 19:5-6. The LAW made Israel "distinct" among the world's nation.........no other nation had law such as was reserved for Israel......the Law at that time was preparing the Gentiles of the world for a new Law a new covenant that would be inclusive to everyone. -- Deut 4:5-8

The scriptures point out that these Old Laws were but temporary. -- Jer. 31:31-34. Jesus stated that the Old Law would be in effect only to the point in which He fulfilled or completed it -- Matt. 5:17-18

Jesus' very purpose was to fulfill the Old Law and bring it to an end and usher in a New Law or New Covenant as was prophesied in Jer. 31 (Luke 24:44)

CHRIST IS THE ENDING OF THOSE OLD LAWS (Romans 10:4).

Christians keep saying this but fail to practice it.

 

[C_Clayton_Jones]

So far as the laws of Leviticus goes, they were specific laws for a specific nation at a specific period in history.

Again, there are far too many Christians who haven’t gotten this message.

 

[Clyde 154]

Leviticus 18:22 (different versions)

"“Do not practice homosexuality, having sex with another man as with a woman. It is a detestable sin."

"Thou shalt not lie with mankind as with womankind: because it is an abomination."

"It is disgusting for a man to have sex with another man."

"“Men, you must not have sexual relations with another man as with a woman. That is a terrible sin!"

And Leviticus 20:10 (different versions)

"If any man commit adultery with the wife of another, and defile his neighbour's wife: let them: be put to death, both the adulterer and the adulteress."

"If anyone will have committed sexual acts with the wife of another, or will have perpetrated adultery with his neighbor's spouse, they shall die a death, both the adulterer and the adulteress."

"If a man commits adultery with the wife of a fellow-Israelite, both he and the woman shall be put to death."

"And the man that committeth adultery with another man's wife, even he that committeth adultery with his neighbour's wife, the adulterer and the adulteress shall surely be put to death."

Two sections of the same part of the Bible. And yet the religious right manages to be extremely anti-gay because of Leviticus 18:22 but will elect a triple adulterer in spite of 20:10.

So, which is it? Are you pro-Leviticus or anti-Leviticus as a Christian?

The question is why should anyone apply LAW that was expressly intended for only one peoples on earth? When you study the Holy Scriptures you learn that God as had 3 sets of laws in effect at different periods of time. 1. The Patriarchal 2. The Mosaical and 3. Christ's law

Just like the majority who fail to comprehend these 3 distinctly different laws.......you are not distinguishing the application thereof. Example: The United States system of jurisprudence is founded upon some principles established under British Common Laws.......the majority of which can be found when one studies Blackstone. Would you declare that law drafted expressly for the British Empire was applicable to the citizens of the United States today.......or only that which was carried forward by the citizens of the U.S. from a British foundation?

In other words..........if Law from the Old Law of Moses is not carried over into New Testament Law, its not applicable and is good only as a teaching tool. Its true that both homosexuality and adulty are both taboo in the New Testament.........the penalties that were in effect from the Old Laws no longer apply, we live under the LAW OF GRACE (forgiveness). The only sin that can't be forgiven is a sin that remains UNREPENTANT.

In other words .......... none of the passages that were presented from Leviticus is applicable today as these laws were applicable only to the Hebrew Nation and the scriptures themselves point out this fact.

Deut. 5: 2-3 points out that these early laws was for the nation of Israel only. By following the Old Law the Israelites were bound to God. -- Ex. 19:5-6. The LAW made Israel "distinct" among the world's nation.........no other nation had law such as was reserved for Israel......the Law at that time was preparing the Gentiles of the world for a new Law a new covenant that would be inclusive to everyone. -- Deut 4:5-8

The scriptures point out that these Old Laws were but temporary. -- Jer. 31:31-34. Jesus stated that the Old Law would be in effect only to the point in which He fulfilled or completed it -- Matt. 5:17-18

Jesus' very purpose was to fulfill the Old Law and bring it to an end and usher in a New Law or New Covenant as was prophesied in Jer. 31 (Luke 24:44)

CHRIST IS THE ENDING OF THOSE OLD LAWS (Romans 10:4).

Christians keep saying this but fail to practice it.

Again, why practice antiquated law that has not been applicable for over 2000 years? Its the Letter of the Law that kills and the spirit of the law that saves. Just how does anyone know who practices what and who has been forgiven and has made peace with the Lord or repented? When did "clairvoyance" become so commonplace?

 

[surada]

Leviticus 18:22 (different versions)

"“Do not practice homosexuality, having sex with another man as with a woman. It is a detestable sin."

"Thou shalt not lie with mankind as with womankind: because it is an abomination."

"It is disgusting for a man to have sex with another man."

"“Men, you must not have sexual relations with another man as with a woman. That is a terrible sin!"

And Leviticus 20:10 (different versions)

"If any man commit adultery with the wife of another, and defile his neighbour's wife: let them: be put to death, both the adulterer and the adulteress."

"If anyone will have committed sexual acts with the wife of another, or will have perpetrated adultery with his neighbor's spouse, they shall die a death, both the adulterer and the adulteress."

"If a man commits adultery with the wife of a fellow-Israelite, both he and the woman shall be put to death."

"And the man that committeth adultery with another man's wife, even he that committeth adultery with his neighbour's wife, the adulterer and the adulteress shall surely be put to death."

Two sections of the same part of the Bible. And yet the religious right manages to be extremely anti-gay because of Leviticus 18:22 but will elect a triple adulterer in spite of 20:10.

So, which is it? Are you pro-Leviticus or anti-Leviticus as a Christian?

I always find it amusing when someone charges others of being some type of bigot for wanting to find fault with one group while defending another. The funny part........you are attempting to favor the sin of homosexuality over the sin of adulty when the wages of ALL SIN IS DEATH, and then are charging others of HYPOCRISY.

Everyone sins at some point in their life, either a sin of omission or a sin of commission......and the same penalty applies..... DEATH, unless the Grace of Jesus Christ is accepted and there is a repenting of those sins (turn away).

Do know whether Mr. Trump has made peace with the Lord, has he repented or is he still unrepentant? When did you first notice you had this gift of reading the thoughts of others?


The question is why should anyone apply LAW that was expressly intended for only one peoples on earth? When you study the Holy Scriptures you learn that God as had 3 sets of laws in effect at different periods of time. 1. The Patriarchal 2. The Mosaical and 3. Christ's law

Just like the majority who fail to comprehend these 3 distinctly different laws.......you are not distinguishing the application thereof. Example: The United States system of jurisprudence is founded upon some principles established under British Common Laws.......the majority of which can be found when one studies Blackstone. Would you declare that law drafted expressly for the British Empire was applicable to the citizens of the United States today.......or only that which was carried forward by the citizens of the U.S. from a British foundation?

In other words..........if Law from the Old Law of Moses is not carried over into New Testament Law, its not applicable and is good only as a teaching tool. Its true that both homosexuality and adulty are both taboo in the New Testament.........the penalties that were in effect from the Old Laws no longer apply, we live under the LAW OF GRACE (forgiveness). The only sin that can't be forgiven is a sin that remains UNREPENTANT.

In other words .......... none of the passages that were presented from Leviticus is applicable today as these laws were applicable only to the Hebrew Nation and the scriptures themselves point out this fact.

Deut. 5: 2-3 points out that these early laws was for the nation of Israel only. By following the Old Law the Israelites were bound to God. -- Ex. 19:5-6. The LAW made Israel "distinct" among the world's nation.........no other nation had law such as was reserved for Israel......the Law at that time was preparing the Gentiles of the world for a new Law a new covenant that would be inclusive to everyone. -- Deut 4:5-8

The scriptures point out that these Old Laws were but temporary. -- Jer. 31:31-34. Jesus stated that the Old Law would be in effect only to the point in which He fulfilled or completed it -- Matt. 5:17-18

Jesus' very purpose was to fulfill the Old Law and bring it to an end and usher in a New Law or New Covenant as was prophesied in Jer. 31 (Luke 24:44)

CHRIST IS THE ENDING OF THOSE OLD LAWS (Romans 10:4).

Have you forgotten the Nag Hammadi?

 

[justinacolmena]

The commandment against adultery and same sex sex remains (these are repeated in the New Testament books), but the commandment to stone those who practice those things does not.

The ancient Hebrews were stone masons, and they stoned people into prison cells for their crimes.

Forcible same-sex sodomy does need some kind of stoning punishment even to this day ...

 

[Moonglow]

Leviticus 18:22 (different versions)

"“Do not practice homosexuality, having sex with another man as with a woman. It is a detestable sin."

"Thou shalt not lie with mankind as with womankind: because it is an abomination."

"It is disgusting for a man to have sex with another man."

"“Men, you must not have sexual relations with another man as with a woman. That is a terrible sin!"

And Leviticus 20:10 (different versions)

"If any man commit adultery with the wife of another, and defile his neighbour's wife: let them: be put to death, both the adulterer and the adulteress."

"If anyone will have committed sexual acts with the wife of another, or will have perpetrated adultery with his neighbor's spouse, they shall die a death, both the adulterer and the adulteress."

"If a man commits adultery with the wife of a fellow-Israelite, both he and the woman shall be put to death."

"And the man that committeth adultery with another man's wife, even he that committeth adultery with his neighbour's wife, the adulterer and the adulteress shall surely be put to death."

Two sections of the same part of the Bible. And yet the religious right manages to be extremely anti-gay because of Leviticus 18:22 but will elect a triple adulterer in spite of 20:10.

So, which is it? Are you pro-Leviticus or anti-Leviticus as a Christian?

This message is not in the original first Bible.

 

[frigidweirdo]

Leviticus 18:22 (different versions)

"“Do not practice homosexuality, having sex with another man as with a woman. It is a detestable sin."

"Thou shalt not lie with mankind as with womankind: because it is an abomination."

"It is disgusting for a man to have sex with another man."

"“Men, you must not have sexual relations with another man as with a woman. That is a terrible sin!"

And Leviticus 20:10 (different versions)

"If any man commit adultery with the wife of another, and defile his neighbour's wife: let them: be put to death, both the adulterer and the adulteress."

"If anyone will have committed sexual acts with the wife of another, or will have perpetrated adultery with his neighbor's spouse, they shall die a death, both the adulterer and the adulteress."

"If a man commits adultery with the wife of a fellow-Israelite, both he and the woman shall be put to death."

"And the man that committeth adultery with another man's wife, even he that committeth adultery with his neighbour's wife, the adulterer and the adulteress shall surely be put to death."

Two sections of the same part of the Bible. And yet the religious right manages to be extremely anti-gay because of Leviticus 18:22 but will elect a triple adulterer in spite of 20:10.

So, which is it? Are you pro-Leviticus or anti-Leviticus as a Christian?

I always find it amusing when someone charges others of being some type of bigot for wanting to find fault with one group while defending another. The funny part........you are attempting to favor the sin of homosexuality over the sin of adulty when the wages of ALL SIN IS DEATH, and then are charging others of HYPOCRISY.

Everyone sins at some point in their life, either a sin of omission or a sin of commission......and the same penalty applies..... DEATH, unless the Grace of Jesus Christ is accepted and there is a repenting of those sins (turn away).

Do know whether Mr. Trump has made peace with the Lord, has he repented or is he still unrepentant? When did you first notice you had this gift of reading the thoughts of others?


The question is why should anyone apply LAW that was expressly intended for only one peoples on earth? When you study the Holy Scriptures you learn that God as had 3 sets of laws in effect at different periods of time. 1. The Patriarchal 2. The Mosaical and 3. Christ's law

Just like the majority who fail to comprehend these 3 distinctly different laws.......you are not distinguishing the application thereof. Example: The United States system of jurisprudence is founded upon some principles established under British Common Laws.......the majority of which can be found when one studies Blackstone. Would you declare that law drafted expressly for the British Empire was applicable to the citizens of the United States today.......or only that which was carried forward by the citizens of the U.S. from a British foundation?

In other words..........if Law from the Old Law of Moses is not carried over into New Testament Law, its not applicable and is good only as a teaching tool. Its true that both homosexuality and adulty are both taboo in the New Testament.........the penalties that were in effect from the Old Laws no longer apply, we live under the LAW OF GRACE (forgiveness). The only sin that can't be forgiven is a sin that remains UNREPENTANT.

In other words .......... none of the passages that were presented from Leviticus is applicable today as these laws were applicable only to the Hebrew Nation and the scriptures themselves point out this fact.

Deut. 5: 2-3 points out that these early laws was for the nation of Israel only. By following the Old Law the Israelites were bound to God. -- Ex. 19:5-6. The LAW made Israel "distinct" among the world's nation.........no other nation had law such as was reserved for Israel......the Law at that time was preparing the Gentiles of the world for a new Law a new covenant that would be inclusive to everyone. -- Deut 4:5-8

The scriptures point out that these Old Laws were but temporary. -- Jer. 31:31-34. Jesus stated that the Old Law would be in effect only to the point in which He fulfilled or completed it -- Matt. 5:17-18

Jesus' very purpose was to fulfill the Old Law and bring it to an end and usher in a New Law or New Covenant as was prophesied in Jer. 31 (Luke 24:44)

CHRIST IS THE ENDING OF THOSE OLD LAWS (Romans 10:4).

Not really sure what you read to come up with your first paragraph.

Well, if everyone sins, then why do religious people attack gay people way more than others?

 

[frigidweirdo]

Leviticus 18:22 (different versions)

"“Do not practice homosexuality, having sex with another man as with a woman. It is a detestable sin."

"Thou shalt not lie with mankind as with womankind: because it is an abomination."

"It is disgusting for a man to have sex with another man."

"“Men, you must not have sexual relations with another man as with a woman. That is a terrible sin!"

And Leviticus 20:10 (different versions)

"If any man commit adultery with the wife of another, and defile his neighbour's wife: let them: be put to death, both the adulterer and the adulteress."

"If anyone will have committed sexual acts with the wife of another, or will have perpetrated adultery with his neighbor's spouse, they shall die a death, both the adulterer and the adulteress."

"If a man commits adultery with the wife of a fellow-Israelite, both he and the woman shall be put to death."

"And the man that committeth adultery with another man's wife, even he that committeth adultery with his neighbour's wife, the adulterer and the adulteress shall surely be put to death."

Two sections of the same part of the Bible. And yet the religious right manages to be extremely anti-gay because of Leviticus 18:22 but will elect a triple adulterer in spite of 20:10.

So, which is it? Are you pro-Leviticus or anti-Leviticus as a Christian?

This message is not in the original first Bible.

Which message? And even if it's not, then you're saying that Leviticus is to be ignored? i.e. gay people are fine, adulterers are fine, get on with your own life?