Zone1 If Jesus Was A Jew

jooos of today is lots of remnants---some already "remnants"
more than 2500 years ago. The Levant has always been a mess.
Then "remnants" happened all over the globe
God promised that Joseph, through his children Ephraim and Manasseh, would become a "great" nation. Hardly a 'remnant'. Also, they weren't Jews, who have their own end time destiny.
 
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If the "house of Israel" that Christ said he was "sent only to" are Jews, then the NT church is Jewish. And if so, who are the billion-plus "Christians" who are not Jews?
good question. another line from the NT is "cast not your pearls before swine" -----a common proverb at the time of Jesus which really suggest that
reading the scriptures to DEM LOUSY ROMANS--- is not a good idea
 
regarding the jewish scriptural literature and jewish history and even the
JESUS you call "christ"-----you are clueless. The "actual words" of the
of the SEPTUAGINT are in GREEK----why would one need to know greek
to have a gasp of Jewish scriptural writings? The Septuagint is a translation.
To what special "facts" which you claim do you refer?
Indeed.......GREEK, which is easily translated into ENGLISH, the modern day equivalent of the Konie Greek of 200 BC........the universal language of the time period. I fail to see a point. What? Only Jews can read modern English? :th_spinspin:
 
Indeed.......GREEK, which is easily translated into ENGLISH, the modern day equivalent of the Konie Greek of 200 BC........the universal language of the time period. I fail to see a point. What? Only Jews can read modern English? :th_spinspin:
it is always the case that "something is lost" in a translation---the KJV is a
translation of a translation. Professor Higgins was wrong----ENGLISH is
not the language of the bible. The KJV is nicely done. KOINE Greek was just that ---GREEK. The idea that it was the commonly used language of the JUDEANS -----and/or Jesus was fluent----is UTTERLY IDIOTIC. It was the
HIGH FALUTIN' language of fancy romans. The common language of Judeans was ARAMAIC. Even today----jewish scholars are fluent in Aramaic. How old were you when you became fluent in KOINE GREEK? I admit----I do not
speak FRENCH----the language of high falutin BRITS to the point that the
HIGH FALUTIN are EXPECTED to know it.
 
why would you say that? Ancient Hebrew is still studied and used every day, along with other forms of Hebrew.

I have had many. How much biblical Hebrew do you know?
Enough to read and comprehend modern English........the equivalent of the Koine Greek used from 200 BC forward by both Jew and Gentile. Koine Greek is easily translated into English. Today's Universal world language.........ENGLISH compares to the 200 BC universal language of the day.........Koine Greek. In fact the original Hebrew language remained a dead language from the 3rd century BC until just recently in world history. The late 19th and early 20th century. Why study a dead language and not abide by its tenants? Where is the Royal Priesthood of Levites today? Where are the commanded burnt offerings (goats, bulls.....etc.)? I don't assume that God agrees with the use of the original Hebrew in order to condescend in matters of eternal truths..... Truth: There is no Biblical Example of Israel today. The nation calling itself Israel is a nation ruled by modern politicians, and created by MEN via UN resolution.....it does not abide by tenants of the origianl Hebrew tongue found in the Holy Scriptures.

 
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it is always the case that "something is lost" in a translation---the KJV is a
translation of a translation. Professor Higgins was wrong----ENGLISH is
not the language of the bible. The KJV is nicely done. KOINE Greek was just that ---GREEK. The idea that it was the commonly used language of the JUDEANS -----and/or Jesus was fluent----is UTTERLY IDIOTIC. It was the
HIGH FALUTIN' language of fancy romans. The common language of Judeans was ARAMAIC. Even today----jewish scholars are fluent in Aramaic. How old were you when you became fluent in KOINE GREEK? I admit----I do not
speak FRENCH----the language of high falutin BRITS to the point that the
HIGH FALUTIN are EXPECTED to know it.
Pray tell.........just what did the JEW do during the period from the 3rd century BC until the late 19th and early 20th century when the original dead Hebrew Tongue was revived? What? There were no REAL JEWS for well over 2000 years? According to your logic, or lack thereof........the JEWS for well over 2000 years were studying nothing but text that lost something in translation..............No :dunno:
 
Simply laws, then--no more and no less.
Generally not. I'm sure that there are exegetical explorations of why those particular statement were on the tablets, but the general idea is that they are 10 statements like (m)any others.
 
Enough to read and comprehend modern English
what? I asked about your knowledge of biblical Hebrew.
........the equivalent of the Koine Greek used from 200 BC forward by both Jew and Gentile. Koine Greek is easily translated into English. Today's Universal world language.........ENGLISH compares to the 200 BC universal language of the day.........Koine Greek.
why are you telling me this? I have no interest in Greek.
In fact the original Hebrew language remained a dead language from the 3rd century BC until just recently in world history.
no, it was in constant use in writing and study. Claiming otherwise shows incredible ignorance.
The late 19th and early 20th century.
that was the birth of modern Hebrew. Ben-Yehuda. Not the same thing as biblical Hebrew.
Why study a dead language and not abide by its tenants?
We do.
Where is the Royal Priesthood of Levites today?
Not royal. There is a priesthood (actually 2 in certain senses) in Judaism. If you didn't know that, well...know you do.
Where are the commanded burnt offerings (goats, bulls.....etc.)?
we have replaced them (as per biblical command) with prayer. You haven't read the bible?
I don't assume that God agrees with the use of the original Hebrew in order to condescend in matters of eternal truths...
actually, he requires it.
.. Truth: There is no Biblical Example of Israel today. The nation calling itself Israel is a nation ruled by modern politicians, and created by MEN via UN resolution
OK, that's true. Irrelevant, but true.
...it does not abide by tenants of the origianl Hebrew tongue found in the Holy Scriptures.
OK, so what?
 
Pray tell.........just what did the JEW do during the period from the 3rd century BC until the late 19th and early 20th century when the original dead Hebrew Tongue was revived? What? There were no REAL JEWS for well over 2000 years? According to your logic, or lack thereof........the JEWS for well over 2000 years were studying nothing but text that lost something in translation..............No :dunno:
You are very confused. The phrase "dead language" confuses you. Dead language simply means that it is not in COMMON USE by common people---
like Coine Greek and Latin. What are the greeks and romans doing? There are many "dead" languages----the aramaic of the Copts and Chaldeans is
even more dead. For over 2000 years jews were studying the Hebrew and
aramaic texts IN THE ORIGINAL---not in translation. Your "no real jews" fantasy is Jelly bean school propaganda. BTW---the english language of the
KJV----is dead as a doorknob. Dost thou not know? ----the Red Sea Scrolls
are written in hebrew more UP TO DATE than than is the English of YOUR BIBLE
 
You are very confused. The phrase "dead language" confuses you. Dead language simply means that it is not in COMMON USE by common people---
like Coine Greek and Latin. What are the greeks and romans doing? There are many "dead" languages----the aramaic of the Copts and Chaldeans is
even more dead. For over 2000 years jews were studying the Hebrew and
aramaic texts IN THE ORIGINAL---not in translation. Your "no real jews" fantasy is Jelly bean school propaganda. BTW---the english language of the
KJV----is dead as a doorknob. Dost thou not know? ----the Red Sea Scrolls
are written in hebrew more UP TO DATE than than is the English of YOUR BIBLE
The KJV is the only Bible that has a concordance that allows the study of the original texts that were written in Hebrew and Greek.
 
There is no Biblical Example of Israel today. The nation calling itself Israel is a nation ruled by modern politicians, and created by MEN via UN resolution.....it does not abide by tenants of the origianl Hebrew tongue found in the Holy Scriptures.
God raised up the state of Israel for the purpose of the end time battle of Armageddon. See Ezekiel 5: 1-4.
 
The KJV is the only Bible that has a concordance that allows the study of the original texts that were written in Hebrew and Greek.
what does "only bible" mean? The torah and talmud and thousands of writings since don't need a "concordance"----they are available in the original
and read in the original by some people---who were and are GOOD AT IT.
PS parts of the OT were written and are still read in Aramaic. An interesting
note----marriage contracts are STILL WRITTEN in Aramaic. (tradition)
 
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