Zone1 If Jesus Was A Jew

[Woodznutz]

what does "only bible" mean? The torah and talmud and thousands of writings since don't need a "concordance"----they are available in the original
and read in the original by some people---who were and are GOOD AT IT.
PS parts of the OT were written and are still read in Aramaic. An interesting
note----marriage contracts are STILL WRITTEN in Aramaic. (tradition)

What Jewish texts are written in the original Greek?

 

[irosie91]

Matthew did not remain a tax collector after Jesus called him.

I did not know that----how did he make a living?

 

[Woodznutz]

really? what taxes? Your somewhat laconic answer is almost funny

All taxes due to the Romans, as well as the 'temple tax'.

 

[Woodznutz]

I did not know that----how did he make a living?

His 'living' now was following Jesus, likely very spartan.

 

[irosie91]

All taxes due to the Romans, as well as the 'temple tax'.

did your jelly-bean school marm tell you that Matthew collected
the TEMPLE TAX? For those who do not know--the temple tax
was 1/2 shekel per year----there is no history of anyone objecting,
or anyone sanctioned for not paying. As a kid when I was invited to
church services by friendly WASP neighbors---I dropped a nickel in the
collection plate

 

[Woodznutz]

did your jelly-bean school marm tell you that Matthew collected
the TEMPLE TAX? For those who do not know--the temple tax
was 1/2 shekel per year----there is no history of anyone objecting,
or anyone sanctioned for not paying. As a kid when I was invited to
church services by friendly WASP neighbors---I dropped a nickel in the
collection plate

Did I say that Matthew collected the temple tax?

 

[irosie91]

Did I say that Matthew collected the temple tax?

You LUMPED the Temple tax with the taxes extorted by Rome as
being a "rendering unto Caesar" ---the Temple tax did not go to
Caesar. The taxes collected by the "money changers" did<< that
was a ROMAN SCAM and the reason that the Pharisee Jews despised
the ROMAN APPOINTED money changers and committed Pharisees
(like you know who) were willing to attack them. The Attack on the
MONEY CHANGERS was an ACT OF SEDITION AGAINST ROME----and guess what Romans did with SEDITIONISTS

 

[zaangalewa]

Do you believe that Gd has a son?

The son of g'd is g'd.

If you know nothing about the whole situation and I will tell you: "When G'd came to his world all princess of the world did send their messengers and showered him with all honors" then you will perhaps believe this. But what do I really tell you what had happened? When G'd came to his world they crucified him like a criminal slave and king of rebells. Who knows g'd and believes in human beings prefers perhaps the first story. But who believes in g'd and knows human beings thinks perhaps the second story is much more plausible.

 

[The Duke]

Then why aren't Christians Jewish? I don't get it.

What do you mean "If"?

 

[zaangalewa]

True. Paul was a "Jew of the Jews" but was a Benjamite.

Paul was a Jew and Roman - with not only a Jewish but also a Greek education. He fought for the idea that heathens are able to become Christians without to have to become first Jews. We could say he was the founder of the Christian religion with this intuition - but this idea was introduced and discussed in the convent of the apostles in 49 AD in Jerusalem and inspired also all or most others including Peter. I think the church was founded before this had happened because before they also did not try to ask other Jewish authorities what to do or not to do.

 

[zaangalewa]

What Jewish texts are written in the original Greek?

All textes of the New Testament. Greek was the lingua franka of the Roman Empire. When Caesar spoke with his soldiers he spoke Greek.

 

[Woodznutz]

You LUMPED the Temple tax with the taxes extorted by Rome as
being a "rendering unto Caesar" ---the Temple tax did not go to
Caesar. The taxes collected by the "money changers" did<< that
was a ROMAN SCAM and the reason that the Pharisee Jews despised
the ROMAN APPOINTED money changers and committed Pharisees
(like you know who) were willing to attack them. The Attack on the
MONEY CHANGERS was an ACT OF SEDITION AGAINST ROME----and guess what Romans did with SEDITIONISTS

I simply meant all taxes. Of course, the temple tax didn't go to the Romans. Didn't you notice the comma after 'Romans'? Sheesh.

 

[Woodznutz]

Paul was a Jew and Roman - with not only a Jewish but also a Greek education. He fought for the idea that heathens are able to become Christians without to have to become first Jews. We could say he was the founder of the Christian religion with this intuition - but this idea was introduced and discussed in the convent of the apostles in 49 AD in Jerusalem and inspired also all or most others including Peter. I think the church was founded before this had happened because before they also did not try to ask other Jewish authorities what to do or not to do.

Paul was a Benjamite by birth, a Jew by religion and education, and a Roman citizen by good fortune.

 

[Woodznutz]

All textes of the New Testament. Greek was the lingua franka of the Roman Empire. When Caesar spoke with his soldiers he spoke Greek.

I mean authorized Jewish study texts. Jews reject the New Testament.

 

[hadit]

The son of g'd is g'd.

If you know nothing about the whole situation and I will tell you: "When G'd came to his world all princess of the world did send their messengers and showered him with all honors" then you will perhaps believe this. But what do I really tell you what had happened? When G'd came to his world they crucified him like a criminal slave and king of rebells. Who knows g'd and believes in human beings prefers perhaps the first story. But who believes in g'd and knows human beings thinks perhaps the second story is much more plausible.

Nebuchadnezzar knew:

25 He answered and said, "Lo, I see four men loose, walking in the midst of the fire, and they have no hurt; and the form of the fourth is like the Son of God."

 

[Road Runner]

What do you mean "If"?

I don't know. I guess that I didn't use the right word.

 

[Clyde 154]

You are very confused. The phrase "dead language" confuses you. Dead language simply means that it is not in COMMON USE by common people---
like Coine Greek and Latin. What are the greeks and romans doing? There are many "dead" languages----the aramaic of the Copts and Chaldeans is
even more dead. For over 2000 years jews were studying the Hebrew and
aramaic texts IN THE ORIGINAL---not in translation. Your "no real jews" fantasy is Jelly bean school propaganda. BTW---the english language of the
KJV----is dead as a doorknob. Dost thou not know? ----the Red Sea Scrolls
are written in hebrew more UP TO DATE than than is the English of YOUR BIBLE

You pointed out something that demonstrates the point EXACTLY.......the use of DEAD LANGUAGES used today, not to reveal the word of God to the lay person, but used like a pompous peacock under the pretension of having some special secret truth about the word of God. God is not the author of confusion (1 Cor. 14:33).......He wants His word preached around the world (Matt.28: 18-20) not hidden in some dead tongue or false prophecy.

Signs of a false cult or an antichrist doctrine? Pretend that only the dead language of ancient Latin is valid and must be read by only the elite puffed up peacocks (RCC)........tell everyone to ignore the Bible from the 1st century AD........its of no value, believe only our special books of prophecy delivered in the 6th or 19/20th century (Islam, Mormonism, JWs)

or pretend that one must study and learn the dead language of ancient Hebrew as its the ONLY TRUTH that is valid. Truth: any modern translation from the Koine Greek is just as valid as the original hebrew tongue. In fact it was used by the majority of practicing Jews from the 3rd century BC on.......why? Because it was the HEBREW SCHOLARS that made the translation from Hebrew to Koine.........the vast majority of Jews themselves could not understand their own historical tongue.........Koine Greek was even updated in the AD time period by Hebrew Scholars because of few transcription copy erros. Now modern Jews declare the Koine Greek is an invalid translation? Really? don't confuse historical truth with hate.

Your argument is nothing but the sound of Dogs Barking.............no Jew on this board has ever really addressed the actual point. Why is Orthodox Hebrew not practiced today if the original Hebrew tongue is the only valid translation? No Royal Order of Priests from the Levit Tribe......no Temple.........no God appointed Monarachy..........no Tribal IDs......no sacrifices as required by the original Hebrew text.......again, does it really matter what translation you use if the TEXT is totally ignored and molded to fit modern society?

 

[Woodznutz]

You pointed out something that demonstrates the point EXACTLY.......the use of DEAD LANGUAGES used today, not to reveal the word of God to the lay person, but used like a pompous peacock under the pretension of having some special secret truth about the word of God. God is not the author of confusion (1 Cor. 14:33).......He wants His word preached around the world (Matt.28: 18-20) not hidden in some dead tongue or false prophecy.

Signs of a false cult or an antichrist doctrine? Pretend that only the dead language of ancient Latin is valid and must be read by only the elite puffed up peacocks (RCC)........tell everyone to ignore the Bible from the 1st century AD........its of no value, believe only our special books of prophecy delivered in the 6th or 19/20th century (Islam, Mormonism, JWs)

or pretend that one must study and learn the dead language of ancient Hebrew as its the ONLY TRUTH that is valid. Truth: any modern translation from the Koine Greek is just as valid as the original hebrew tongue. In fact it was used by the majority of practicing Jews from the 3rd century BC on.......why? Because it was the HEBREW SCHOLARS that made the translation from Hebrew to Koine.........the vast majority of Jews themselves could not understand their own historical tongue.........Koine Greek was even updated in the AD time period by Hebrew Scholars because of few transcription copy erros. Now modern Jews declare the Koine Greek is an invalid translation? Really? don't confuse historical truth with hate.

Your argument is nothing but the sound of Dogs Barking.............no Jew on this board has ever really addressed the actual point. Why is Orthodox Hebrew not practiced today if the original Hebrew tongue is the only valid translation? No Royal Order of Priests from the Levit Tribe......no Temple.........no God appointed Monarachy..........no Tribal IDs......no sacrifices as required by the original Hebrew text.......again, does it really matter what translation you use if the TEXT is totally ignored and molded to fit modern society?

I'd be lost without my Strong's Concordance of the Hebrew and Greek.

 

[Clyde 154]

I'd be lost without my Strong's Concordance of the Hebrew and Greek.

Why? Every translation that is based upon the context, subject matter and content is easily understood in American English. If there is one or two words that might be placed by scribe error.......its a most easy thing to allow the rest of the text within that paragraph and chapter self interpret that misplaced or misspelling of any single word. The truth comes out in the surrounding text. Sure there are few errors of transcription in the Holy Bible........why? Because these scriptures were transferred by hand on antiquated paper often by candlelight. These are human errors not inspired contradictory errors. All the major LITERAL TRANSLATIONS have went through the scientific process of comparative contextual analysis. The translations that can't be trusted are the paraphrased translations such as the Living Bible.....etc, they are based upon OPINION not contextual comparison.

With all the recorded history and the science of archeaology and with today's technological advances I would declare the modern translations are more accurate and loyal to the original Hebrew than the text translated by Rabbis in the early centuries.........who were continually updating the Koine Greek text.

 

[irosie91]

You pointed out something that demonstrates the point EXACTLY.......the use of DEAD LANGUAGES used today, not to reveal the word of God to the lay person, but used like a pompous peacock under the pretension of having some special secret truth about the word of God. God is not the author of confusion (1 Cor. 14:33).......He wants His word preached around the world (Matt.28: 18-20) not hidden in some dead tongue or false prophecy.

Signs of a false cult or an antichrist doctrine? Pretend that only the dead language of ancient Latin is valid and must be read by only the elite puffed up peacocks (RCC)........tell everyone to ignore the Bible from the 1st century AD........its of no value, believe only our special books of prophecy delivered in the 6th or 19/20th century (Islam, Mormonism, JWs)

or pretend that one must study and learn the dead language of ancient Hebrew as its the ONLY TRUTH that is valid. Truth: any modern translation from the Koine Greek is just as valid as the original hebrew tongue. In fact it was used by the majority of practicing Jews from the 3rd century BC on.......why? Because it was the HEBREW SCHOLARS that made the translation from Hebrew to Koine.........the vast majority of Jews themselves could not understand their own historical tongue.........Koine Greek was even updated in the AD time period by Hebrew Scholars because of few transcription copy erros. Now modern Jews declare the Koine Greek is an invalid translation? Really? don't confuse historical truth with hate.

Your argument is nothing but the sound of Dogs Barking.............no Jew on this board has ever really addressed the actual point. Why is Orthodox Hebrew not practiced today if the original Hebrew tongue is the only valid translation? No Royal Order of Priests from the Levit Tribe......no Temple.........no God appointed Monarachy..........no Tribal IDs......no sacrifices as required by the original Hebrew text.......again, does it really matter what translation you use if the TEXT is totally ignored and molded to fit modern society?

You remain confused----the books originally written in Hebrew and Aramaic are no more kept "SECRET" than are the original folios of Shakespeare. You are repeating a medieval christian BLOOD LIBEL. The issue is the idiots who
try to INTERPRET from translations----like you. An expert on Shakespeare---
has no problem learning the language of the time-----Long ago. when I was
(SOB) young----my freshman comp. teacher was an expert on BEOWULF and the CANTEBURY TALES----he was completely literate and eloquent in the weird languages thereof. The issue of LANGUAGE usage at the time of a writing is
very germane to understanding