Matthew
Matthew's account is unique in several respects: He asserts that Jesus left Galilee for the purpose of being baptized by John (πρὸς τὸν Ἰωάννην τοῦ βαπτισθῆναι ὑπ’ αὐτοῦ). He includes a conversation between John and Jesus: In v. 14, John said: "I need to be baptized by you, and do you come to me?" Nevertheless, Jesus convinces John to baptize him "to fulfill all righteousness" (Matthew records that the voice from heaven says "This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased",
Mark
Mark's account is roughly parallel to that of Matthew, except for
Matthew 3:14–
15, which describes John's initial reluctance and eventual consent to baptize Jesus, which is not described by Mark. Mark uses an unusual word for the opening of the heavens, σχιζομένους,
schizomenous, which means "tearing" or "ripping" (Mark 1:10). It forms a verbal thread (
Leitwortstil) with the rending (ἐσχίσθη,
eschisthē) of the
Temple veil in Mark 15:38, inviting comparison between the two episodes.
Justus Knecht answers the question of why Jesus let himself be baptized by John:
en.wikipedia.org
The way I understand it - Jesus' mind, body and spirit involved thoughts and actions driven by a higher understanding - although Jesus was well aware that he "was without sin" spiritually - he would humble himself so that he would "fulfill all righteousness" by being baptized under "The ministry of baptism of John" - this "put a tear" within the heavens - God's Spirit descended unto Jesus - for "Spiritual Righteousness humbled itself (took the higher road) so that physical righteousness could be fulfilled" -
ON EARTH AS IT IS IN HEAVEN.
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