Typical nonsense from you. I ran the numbers from the link you provided, and if you look at the fitness (coefficient correlation) of the two sets of data gun ownership and homicides by gun, there is a fitness of less than zero (r= -0.1008039198). Remembering that r factor of 1 equals perfect fit , -1 equals perfect inverse relationship, and 0 equals no relationship at al, the data youprovided suggests the opposite of what you claim. If anything there some lowering of the homicide rate by gun violence the more gun ownership there is in a given socety.
Out of curiosity, I compared homicides by gun violence and percent of blacks in a population and came up with a respectable r=0.2503632039.
In other words, having blacks in your population has a much greater impact on deaths by gun violence than having guns in your population. But then, you knew that, didn't you.