MarathonMike
Diamond Member
Can someone knowledgeable about the King James version of the Bible comment on why the wording of John 14:2 was changed from the original "My Father's house has many rooms" to "In My Father's house are many mansions"?
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Can someone knowledgeable about the King James version of the Bible comment on why the wording of John 14:2 was changed from the original "My Father's house has many rooms" to "In My Father's house are many mansions"?
Oh I thought it was the other way around. I thought the original version said "rooms" and the later version it was changed to "mansions".A new translator felt that the term "rooms" gave a more accurate impression of the original Greek than "mansions" did.
Oh I thought it was the other way around. I thought the original version said "rooms" and the later version it was changed to "mansions".A new translator felt that the term "rooms" gave a more accurate impression of the original Greek than "mansions" did.
The Anglicans and the Catholics had different POV's at the time it was translated. Catholic Bibles were all in Latin, and protestants had the belief that the word was for everyone, and needed a translation in English. Thus, the KJV.
The question is why, not what. I think I have the answer from the responders.What do you think is the difference in the two statements OP?
I'm saying I don't think they make a difference.The question is why, not what. I think I have the answer from the responders.
One might be inclined to change 'rooms' to 'mansions' making the final reward in Heaven much more appealing to the masses.I'm saying I don't think they make a difference.The question is why, not what. I think I have the answer from the responders.
If so, I'm curious to know what it is.
Seems to be the opposite of, "hell hath enlarged itself." More people are going to hell so it's getting bigger.Can someone knowledgeable about the King James version of the Bible comment on why the wording of John 14:2 was changed from the original "My Father's house has many rooms" to "In My Father's house are many mansions"?
The original has the word mansions. I am reading it now. I enjoyed reading the discussion everyone.Oh I thought it was the other way around. I thought the original version said "rooms" and the later version it was changed to "mansions".A new translator felt that the term "rooms" gave a more accurate impression of the original Greek than "mansions" did.
Context and etymology.Can someone knowledgeable about the King James version of the Bible comment on why the wording of John 14:2 was changed from the original "My Father's house has many rooms" to "In My Father's house are many mansions"?
Strong's 3438 - μονή - translates to abode. Literal translations of the Bible render the Greek as rooms or dwelling places.G3438 - monē - Strong's Greek Lexicon (KJV)
G3438 - μονή monḗ, mon-ay'; from ; a staying, i.e. residence (the act or the place):—abode, mansion.www.blueletterbible.org
Thanks. It makes sense that the definition of "mansion" has changed over a couple thousand years. The sentence "In my Father's house are many mansions" just seemed odd to me.Strong's 3438 - μονή - translates to abode. Literal translations of the Bible render the Greek as rooms or dwelling places.G3438 - monē - Strong's Greek Lexicon (KJV)
G3438 - μονή monḗ, mon-ay'; from ; a staying, i.e. residence (the act or the place):—abode, mansion.www.blueletterbible.org
Mansions seems exclusive to KJV, and in part derives from the Middle English word Manse (from the Latin mansus, denoting house or dwelling). Mansion is just a rectory or vicarage, not actually a large estate.
To my mind, μονή denotes dwelling with the Father for all the saints, who are priests in the kingdom.