John 14:2 does anyone know why the wording was changed in KJV of the Bible?

MarathonMike

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Can someone knowledgeable about the King James version of the Bible comment on why the wording of John 14:2 was changed from the original "My Father's house has many rooms" to "In My Father's house are many mansions"?
 

Polishprince

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Can someone knowledgeable about the King James version of the Bible comment on why the wording of John 14:2 was changed from the original "My Father's house has many rooms" to "In My Father's house are many mansions"?

Actually , the Bible hasn't changed at all.

You just have two different translations here.

A new translator felt that the term "rooms" gave a more accurate impression of the original Greek than "mansions" did. Not being a bible scholar, I really don't know the Greek, so I couldn't say which is a more accurate translation.
 
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MarathonMike

MarathonMike

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A new translator felt that the term "rooms" gave a more accurate impression of the original Greek than "mansions" did.
Oh I thought it was the other way around. I thought the original version said "rooms" and the later version it was changed to "mansions".
 

MarcATL

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What do you think is the difference in the two statements OP?
 

MisterBeale

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I cannot address that specific instance.

But no, the "original" was in fact, never in English. First Greek, then Latin. I am not sure when Rome got around to making an English version, the Protestants did that fist, it is why KJV is so popular.

I only know about the commissioning of the KJV. The mind of King James, and why it was commissioned, but I cannot comment on why the translators translated this verse or that verse a specific way.

The Anglicans and the Catholics had different POV's at the time it was translated. Catholic Bibles were all in Latin, and protestants had the belief that the word was for everyone, and needed a translation in English. Thus, the KJV.


Now, we have Roman Catholic, and of course, Orthodoxy in their appropriate languages, and approved English translations too.

There are, of course, other issues involved, that have nothing to do whatsoever with King James himself, or the Anglican Church, but these are just the ministerial translators, translating as faithfully as they could, the word.

King James, of course, believed in divine right, as all in his day did, like the Church did. I suppose, if you read Romans, to extent, they still do.

But why, and what decisions are made, about this verse or that, or if there is a political agenda about it? I cannot say.


For some versus, probably, but very few of them. Most of the politics was already dealt with at the first and second Council of Nicaea.
 

Polishprince

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A new translator felt that the term "rooms" gave a more accurate impression of the original Greek than "mansions" did.
Oh I thought it was the other way around. I thought the original version said "rooms" and the later version it was changed to "mansions".
Actually the original version used a Greek word and phrase . And different translators on time read that phrase in Greek and came to different conclusions as to which was the most appropriate and would give the correct imprssion to English speaking readers.

Since English is a living language, I'm sure there will be changes in the future as well.
 

Polishprince

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The Anglicans and the Catholics had different POV's at the time it was translated. Catholic Bibles were all in Latin, and protestants had the belief that the word was for everyone, and needed a translation in English. Thus, the KJV.
That's just not true. The Roman Catholic Duoay Rheims English translation of the Holy Bible predated the KJV.

However, the "official" RCC bible used in the mass and other worship was the Latin Vulgate bible. Until the 1960's, all of the official worship was Latin in the RCC. But there were still English language bibles starting in the 16th Century for Catholics to read.
 

Gracie

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Have 10 people standing next to each other. whisper a sentence like "the sky is blue and birds are singing". By the time it gets to the end of the line, the sentence is now "Mary screwed the gardener and George found out, killed the gardener and buried him under the shed".

Translations changed according to who translated it, the agenda of the times, and whomever was in charge of the tomes.
 
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MarathonMike

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The question is why, not what. I think I have the answer from the responders.
I'm saying I don't think they make a difference.

If so, I'm curious to know what it is.
One might be inclined to change 'rooms' to 'mansions' making the final reward in Heaven much more appealing to the masses.
 

tyroneweaver

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Can someone knowledgeable about the King James version of the Bible comment on why the wording of John 14:2 was changed from the original "My Father's house has many rooms" to "In My Father's house are many mansions"?
Seems to be the opposite of, "hell hath enlarged itself." More people are going to hell so it's getting bigger.
So the Savior has his version, More people are getting saved so additional rooms need to be added.

.....I guess.
 

lg325

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A new translator felt that the term "rooms" gave a more accurate impression of the original Greek than "mansions" did.
Oh I thought it was the other way around. I thought the original version said "rooms" and the later version it was changed to "mansions".
The original has the word mansions. I am reading it now. I enjoyed reading the discussion everyone. :)
 
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james bond

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Led Zeppelin? I use ESV; It's still houses.
 

Meriweather

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Can someone knowledgeable about the King James version of the Bible comment on why the wording of John 14:2 was changed from the original "My Father's house has many rooms" to "In My Father's house are many mansions"?
Context and etymology.

The original use of 'mansion' is a dwelling place--often a large room. The context of Jesus words is that his Father's House has a lot of room.
 

norwegen

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Strong's 3438 - μονή - translates to abode. Literal translations of the Bible render the Greek as rooms or dwelling places.

Mansions seems exclusive to KJV, and in part derives from the Middle English word Manse (from the Latin mansus, denoting house or dwelling). Mansion is just a rectory or vicarage, not actually a large estate.

To my mind, μονή denotes dwelling with the Father for all the saints, who are priests in the kingdom.
 
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MarathonMike

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Strong's 3438 - μονή - translates to abode. Literal translations of the Bible render the Greek as rooms or dwelling places.

Mansions seems exclusive to KJV, and in part derives from the Middle English word Manse (from the Latin mansus, denoting house or dwelling). Mansion is just a rectory or vicarage, not actually a large estate.

To my mind, μονή denotes dwelling with the Father for all the saints, who are priests in the kingdom.
Thanks. It makes sense that the definition of "mansion" has changed over a couple thousand years. The sentence "In my Father's house are many mansions" just seemed odd to me.
 

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