BluePhantom
Educator (of liberals)
Well...uh....it's certainly a convenient way to look at it. It's certainly an interpretation that would be comfortable for modern Christians in order to explain why Paul's prediction didn't come true. I suppose if you look at that passage in a vacuum one might be tempted to view it as such. Unfortunately, when you put it into the context of Paul's writings as a whole I don't think it holds up (and again the majority of scholars would agree with me).
Throughout his letters Paul warns of the imminent second coming. In 1 Corinthians 7 he writes essentially that people should not change their status. If you are single, stay single. If you are married, stay married, etc. He makes this argument because of the "coming or present crisis" (I write "coming or present" because the Greek there is a bit vague - most translate it as "present"). Paul talks a lot about the imminent tribulation. Well when he is talking about the "tribulation" or the "crisis" he is referring to the end. Scholarship is virtually united on that point. Paul was preparing his followers for the imminent coming of God's good kingdom.
Certainly if you wish to interpret it as you describe above, that's your prerogative. From a literary and linguistic point of view and when put in the context of Paul's letter as a whole...honestly Archer, i think it's a tough argument to make.
And unfortunately i have to go to work so I will respond to the other posts tonight.
YOU LACK WISDOM AND UNDERSTANDING AND THEN COMPOUND YOU IGNORANCE BY SAYING THE BIBLE IS IN ERROR!!! count the cost!!
Oh I assure you I have plenty of both. Unlike you I don't accept something as true simply because the Bible says so. I have demonstrated in several places where there is error in the Bible. Again just as an example, the gospels write that Jesus was born during the reign of Herod the Great and during Quirinius' Governorship of Syria. It's a historically documented fact that Quirinius did not become Governor of Syria until after the death of Herod. It is impossible for Jesus to have been born both during the reign of Herod and the Governorship of Quirinius.
As such only one of them can be right meaning the other is wrong...and if one of them is wrong then guess what....the Bible contains errors. It's really not that hard. The ignorance is not in saying that the Bible contains errors. The ignorance is steadfastly insisting that it doesn't when it clearly and obviously does.
Now I have to say gismys...I find you amusing but the main reason why is not your total inability to argue a point. It's because I am absolutely intrigued by the intellectual (I use that word loosely) hoops, and ladders, and hurdles you go through in a desperate attempt to avoid an uncomfortable truth. I literally read your posts and burst out in laughter at the desperate straws you grasp for.
Let me give you a prime example (and I am paraphrasing):
You: John son of Zebadee wrote the Gospel According to John.
Me: That would be tough since Acts says John was illiterate, and being a peasant from Galilee he would have spoken Aramaic instead of Greek which was the language the Gospels were written in.
You: John could speak Greek.
Me: That is speculation. In reality if John spoke any Greek he would have probably spoken only so much Greek that he could get by with native Greek speakers on a basic level much like I know enough Spanish to communicate on a basic level with my Spanish speaking employees. He would not have been fluent in the Greek language and regardless he couldn't read or write in Aramaic let alone Greek. Acts is clear on this point.
You: Well....he used a scribe.
Me: Again..speculation. There's not a shred of evidence that John used a scribe. Scribes were expensive. These were peasants. They didn't have the money to hire a scribe.
You: Well they probably took up a collection to be able to afford one or maybe someone in the early Christian community was a scribe.
Me: We are really pushing the boundaries of speculation here. Even if he did use a scribe all the scribe would do is take dictation of what John said word for word which would have been in Aramaic. The only reason to write it in Greek is to appeal to a gentile audience and Paul was the only one who was interested in the gentiles. John was interested in Jews. He would have dictated in Aramaic to appeal to a Jewish audience. Furthermore, John would have had to be not only a fluent speaker of Greek, he would have had to have spoken the language at a very advanced level to account for the beautiful flowing Greek that the Gospel is written in.
You: Well....he dictated it in Aramaic and had it translated into Greek.
Me: Ok we are getting beyond the realm of speculation and entering the realm of fantasy. There's not a single copy of the Gospel of John from antiquity that is written in Aramaic. Furthermore, some passages don't even make sense when read in Aramaic because they describe things that are unique to Greek speaking culture or it uses a play on words which only makes sense with a Greek word that has two meanings. Furthermore, you overlook the point that John didn't care about Greek speaking people. There was no value to John in translating it into Greek because he was concerned with Jews who spoke Aramaic. Additionally there's not a single instance in antiquity of someone dictating to a scribe in one language with the intent of having it translated into another. I challenge you to find one.
You: Well.....John son of Zebadee wrote the Gospel According to John. You are just an atheist. You are going to burn in hell for spreading lies of Satan.
I am waiting in anticipation for your next straw grasp. Here let me suggest one for you: "John was overcome by the Holy Spirit and divine inspiration allowed him to suddenly be able to speak and write in perfect poetic Greek". Good God Almighty.
Last edited: