Some libertarian and right-wing types insist that the 16th Amendment (the income tax amendment) was not properly ratified and is not legally in effect.
One of the reasons for this invalidity supposedly comes from the fact that different versions of the amendment were considered by the states, i.e., not every version had the exact same spelling, punctuation et cetera.
Should the 16th Amendment be invalidated on these grounds?
One of the reasons for this invalidity supposedly comes from the fact that different versions of the amendment were considered by the states, i.e., not every version had the exact same spelling, punctuation et cetera.
Should the 16th Amendment be invalidated on these grounds?