Ok, thanks for proving you have no idea what you're talking about.Again you are misunderstanding the 1st Amendment. The 1st Amendment only applies to the Federal Government. States are free to establish a state religion and by effect ban all others. The 14th Amendment did not change that. If they believed it had, they would have never tried passing the Blaine Amendment which failed.Now you're conflating the issue. We're not talking about whether or not a state can establish a state religion; we're talking about if a state can ban a religion.No. The Establishment clause was written specifically to prevent the Federal Government from interfering with state established religions. States are within their rights to establish state religions.Technically that is incorrect. The Establishment Clause of the 1st Amendment was written to prevent the federal government from interfering with state established religions of which half of the states had at the time the constitution was ratified.
Technically it is exactly correct. While there was certainly a concern about state religions- other state constitution's prior to the First Amendment made it very clear that this applied to individual religious freedom- including Jews and Muslims.
The First Amendment. along with the 14th Amendment are clear -- the state cannot prohibit[ing] the free exercise thereof.
Incorporation Doctrine
Remember- we are just supposed to belief Ding's opinion is fact.
Don't dare ask him to for anything to support his 'opinion'