ChrisL
Diamond Member
League of Nations gave nothing to anyone.Phoenall said:Firstly it did not apply in 1920 when the LoN gave the land to the Jews
Phoenall said:Secondly it did not apply in 1923 when the LoN rethought the land to be given to the Jews
League of Nations gave nothing to anyone.
Phoenall said:Thirdly it did not apply in 1947 when the U.N illegally portioned the land and gave half to the Jews
The U.N. gave nothing to anyone.
Phoenall said:Fourthly it did not apply in 1967 when the Palestinians and others declared war on Israel and decided to invade them
Nobody invaded Israel in 1967, Israel attacked its neighbours and invaded their territories.
How about links to corroborate your claims, or will they be like your definition of Zionism non existent. And no partisan sources for your links either.
But remember if the LoN gave nothing then Jordan, Syria, Iraq, Lebanon, Saudi and Egypt don't exist
I don't know whether this is just another troll, or whether you are a complete imbecile.
Just look back through this thread and you will find abundant links to back up what I've posted. Even RoccoR is in qualified agreement. If you are too lazy or stupid to do so, send your "mini-me-minion" Abuafck to do it for you.
Yes, the Israelis attacked first because they found out about the Arabs plans to attack them, so they got the jump on them. Good intelligence. Lol.
Lol. Israel totally USED them. To the victors go the spoils.