Mr.Nick
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- May 10, 2011
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Correct me if im wrong, but hasnt California already done this. If California doing this didnt challenge the Federal regulations on it, why the heck would Colorado allowing Marijuana use do so?
California did not legalize recreational use of marijuana. It was on the ballot and it failed.
Whether drug tourism in Colorado would end up differently than drug tourism in the Netherlands is debatable.
One cannot legalize a product/substance that was previously legal.
The federal government banning weed was unlawful in the first place.
Hell, weed isn't even really "illegal" - you just need a "tax stamp" to possess weed but in order to get the stamp you have to show the weed - hence you're breaking the law by showing the weed without the stamp - it is de facto criminalization..
It's a catch 22..
If gays can have civil unions then people can do drugs...
Of course it's up to the state per the Tenth Amendment...
The federal government doesn't have the right to intervene - their duty is to uphold the Bill of Rights...
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