Because they can't go to school due to having to find some kind of work to feed the family?
Actually, that presumes a rather horrible falsehood. Specifically, the idea that education equals intelligence. They're entirely separate.
As they say on the Venn diagram; a significant overlap.
Greg
You've just shown that you're neither educated nor intelligent. Really, it's enough to defeat your statement by pointing out that correlation does not imply causation. But that's what I did in my first post, and you didn't seem to catch the drift. So I guess I'm going to have to break it down for you and your fellow mouth breathers.
Let's examine your claim.
By definition, 50% are at least average intelligence, or above. Furthermore, about 70% of people fall within the "average range" as the bell curve graphs. This leaves about 15% who fall in the "above" range, and 15% in the "below range. This gives us two options: 1) Consider "intelligent" to only apply to those above the average range, which would mean that 85% of the population is unintelligent; 2) Consider "intelligent" to include the average range as well as the "above" range. That means that 85% of the population
are intelligent.
Either way, your attempt to proclaim some kind of point fails. If we accept such an overlap, then the coincidence becomes meaningless. All it amounts to is saying that
most people are intelligent, and
most people are educated. Which has about as much significance as pointing out that
most people have homes and
most people have two kidneys.
On the other hand, if we take the former scenario, very few people are intelligent. Thus, in order for your claim to be true, we should only have approximately 15% of population with a college education. Since in fact a solid 40% of the American population has a college degree, your claim is still false.
