I have. It is just that you have refused to see it.P F Tinmore, et al,
This is so bogus.
(COMMENT)I have backed up my claims with documents.
How about you?
You have not presented any convincing argument or evidence that the Jewish Declaration of Independence and their exercise of the right of "self-determination" was in any way invalid at the time.
Most Respectfully,
R
3. Reaffirms the inalienable right of the peoples of Namibia and Zimbabwe, of the Palestinian people and of all peoples under alien and colonial domination to self-determination, national independence, territorial integrity, and national unity and sovereignty without external interference;
A RES 33 24 of 29 November 1978
Which the Palestinians have exercised to the full in 1988 when they declared independence under UN res 181. Just as the Jews did in 1948. Now it cant be invalid or the Jews yet valid for the arab muslims can it, as that would be taking away the Jews INALIENABLE RIGHTS TO SELF-DETERMINATION, NATIONAL INDEPENDNCE, TERRITORIAL INTEGRITY AND NATIONAL UNITY. The link you provided spells it out very clearly that the Jews have as much right to declare independence in Palestine as the arab muslims do. The demographics mean nothing at the end of the day as they are just numbers with no basis in law. In reality the Jews should have had all of Palestine because the arab muslims had already declared in other parts of the Palestine mandate.