An "eternal" object is still temporal. It exists in time. ...
Because an object exists in time doesn't necessarily mean its existence is dependent on time. If the simple fact that it exists is not dependent on time, meaning that it has always existed and that it will always exist (which is basically the definition of "eternal", BTW), then it qualifies as 'atemporal', and here's the key, whether 'time' itself had a beginning and may have an ending or not.
SwimExpert said:
...Longevity does not equate to atemporality. Even if the entirety of time were compressed to nothing more than the span of your life (which would mean that you would exist eternally, from the beginning of time to the end of time), your existence still would not be atemporal. .
...speaking of 'suspect definitions'.
If something's eternally existent, it had no beginning and it will have no end.
As succinctly defined in
the OED:
the oxford english dictionary said:
eternal
Syllabification: e·ter·nal
Pronunciation: /əˈtərn(ə)l/
adjective
Lasting or
existing forever;
without end or
beginning:
...
SwimExpert said:
...Your existence would still be in a constant state of change. Your existence would depend on time in order to ever be defined.
That's only true of a
temporary being, by which I mean a being whose very existence depends on the movement and changes of positions and forms of the eternal fabric that constitutes his/her/its being. In line with my previous analogy, it's true of the temporary cardhouses,
not of the eternal cards.
SWIMEXPERT said:
...Someone would have to know about it, at the very least. Furthermore, if it were truly self evident, then everyone would know it upon being faced with it. ...
Not necessarily.
Subjective understanding (or the lack thereof) has no bearing on the objective veracity of a self-evident truth, nor does it negate or in any way refute its self-contained evidence. The evidence is there, irrespective of the inability of some to see it. While the truth may not be evident
to them, the failure to perceive it as such is one of subjective understanding of the
available evidence, which is certainly not a negation of the availbility (read: presence) of that evidence. An elementary school student's inability to see the truth in a highly advanced calculus formula doesn't mean its truth isn't evident in (and proven by) the equation. It's objectively there to be perceived and comprehended, regardless of the subjective limitations of those who can't comprehend it.
SwimExpert said:
Here's a thought: why don't
you prove that the veracity of self-contained proofs and/or the fact that their evidentiary components are indeed
evident in such equations...are negated by subjective ignorance?