YES.First off. They are NOT the same thing, and a new law supersedes the old law if they addressed the same thing. Which these two clearly don't. However, when you post how due process is being followed with red flags, you continually follow up with an example where it isn't being followed. You keep doing this over and over. Even you stated in an earlier post that a notification to the individual being accused is required for it to qualify as due process. In your case above did that happen, or are you changing your definition to fit your narrative?
'notification to the individual being accused is required for it to qualify as due process'.
The article doesn't say how much advanced notice Conti had, possibly none but further reading, indicates, they don't even need that.
Just like a drug raid at a house, do they need 'due process', per your definition?
Same thing with an undercover, the cops apply for a warrant, raid the house and arrest everyone inside.
Then the defendants are taken to jail and given a court date where they have a chance to prove their innocence.
Now, why weren't they let go, they didn't have 'due process'?
The cops can seize the $$$, the cars, the house.
They weren't charged, until the police showed up.