The Official Discussion Thread for who is considered indiginous to Palestine?

Who are the indiginous people(s) of the Palestine region?


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RE: The Official Discussion Thread for who is considered indigenous to Palestine?
※→ rylah, et al,

BLUF: We don't truly understand what is meant by "Indigenous Poeple?" What makes one group an Indigenous People and another Group not? If the indigeouspeople are forced to leave on the needs of survival, and then return some number of generations later, are they indigenous or foreign?

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I think that most of these "indigenous to Palestine" arguments are seriously flawed; for both the Arab Palestinian and the Jewish People of Israel.

Even in this presentation, the discussion starts with the remembrance of the 20th Century direct support by European collaborator for totalitarianism and the extreme persecution by the Germanic ethnic group themselves.

application-pdf.png
Download A/RES/61/295 United Nations Declaration on the Rights of Indigenous Peoples.pdf (165.85 KB)
It is important to remember that the Arab Palestinian believes that they now have a legal position based on the UN Declaration. They have this mistaken idea that the UN Declaration supports what they think is justice for them.

(REFERENCE)

In 1983 the Working Group on Indigenous Populations (WGIP) enlarged this definition of "indigenous people" (FICN. 41Sub.211983121 Adds. para. 3 79) to include the following criteria:

  • (a) they are the descendants of groups, which were in the territory at the time when other groups of different cultures or ethnic origin arrived there;
  • (b) precisely because of their isolation from other segments of the country's population they have almost preserved intact the customs and traditions of their ancestors which are similar to those characterized as indigenous;
  • (c) they are, even if only formally, placed under a state structure which incorporates national, social and cultural characteristics alien to their own.[/I]
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(COMMENT)[/I]

The global doctrine advocates the moral condemnable of the social injustice of NOT recognizing the right of all peoples to be different → to consider themselves different.

In this case, the Indigenous Peoples (Jews) have suffered from historic injustices by an unfair majority (Arab Palestinians) acting under the cover and color of law.

Most Respectfully,
R


Edward Said's argument is false and self-contradicting.

His argument is not for indigenous rights, but for rights on the basis of longstanding presence, which by itself doesn't give an indigenous status according to the definition of the UN.

Furthermore he attempts to equate "domination" to "inhabitance", which is in effect a total denial of indigenous rights, and their purpose.

Using his argument Spaniards could claim that they're indigenous Moroccans because they have longer domination over Melila and Ceuta in North Africa, or the USA could claim that they were the indigenous nation of America because they had longer domination of the territory than the Iroquois Confederacy.

Again- longstanding inhabitance or "domination", as he puts it, alone doesn't make a group indigenous, but rather defines it as an invading civilization.

The Jews were not the first people there nor were they ever the only people there.

Edward Said gave a list of some of the people who have invaded/conquered/occupied that land. I don't believe that every time a territory falls under new rule everybody moves out and a whole new population moves in. Usually the upper crust is removed and everybody else stays to be exploited. Many people have come and gone but there is a core group of people who have stayed and put down roots. These are the people of the place. Call them the indigenous, the natives, whatever they are the people who belong to that land.


Yes we call them Jews, have a documented history of inhabitance for 3500 continuous years, who established a distinct civilization centered around that specific land, as Edward Said claimed THERE IS a certainly a stronger claim.

Arabs are simply not indigenous to Palestine, by definition.

OK, but they were never exclusively there so they have no exclusive claim to the land.


What do You mean by exclusively?
One is either indigenous or not, Greece is either a Greek land or it's not.
I'm not arguing that groups don't have rights based on longstanding presence, my argument is for sovereignty rights of any indigenous nation that thrives to re-establish their historic homeland.
 
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RE: The Official Discussion Thread for who is considered indigenous to Palestine?
※→ rylah, P F Tinmore, et al,

This has nothing to do with the joint Allied Powers decision to establish a "Jewish National Home."

The Jews were not the first people there nor were they ever the only people there.
(COMMENT)

It is not a matter of a claim...

It is a decision made to cure a specific problem that nearly extinguished the culture and people known as the Jews. It was a conscious decision to maintain (as close as possible) in its original (or what remains) state the Jewish Culture.

Who was there first, and who has the claim, is not relevant. The preservation of the Jewish People as part of humanity is the key.

There will always be those that are subpar cultures in the world that will not understand the need to protect and preserve the Jews from further decimation as that which has been inflicted upon then throughout history; and especially that which has ravaged them over the last century.

The intent, 100 years ago, when the rumble started, was to establish a Jewish National Home. Today, the intent is to protect the Jewish National Home from being ravaged by yet another set of developmentally disadvantaged set of nations (the Arab League States) and turning Israel from being the most advanced nation in the Middle East on the Human Development Index, into another failed example of adjacent failing Arab States.

Most Respectfully,
R
 
RE: The Official Discussion Thread for who is considered indigenous to Palestine?
※→ rylah, P F Tinmore, et al,

This has nothing to do with the joint Allied Powers decision to establish a "Jewish National Home."

The Jews were not the first people there nor were they ever the only people there.
(COMMENT)

It is not a matter of a claim...

It is a decision made to cure a specific problem that nearly extinguished the culture and people known as the Jews. It was a conscious decision to maintain (as close as possible) in its original (or what remains) state the Jewish Culture.

Who was there first, and who has the claim, is not relevant. The preservation of the Jewish People as part of humanity is the key.

There will always be those that are subpar cultures in the world that will not understand the need to protect and preserve the Jews from further decimation as that which has been inflicted upon then throughout history; and especially that which has ravaged them over the last century.

The intent, 100 years ago, when the rumble started, was to establish a Jewish National Home. Today, the intent is to protect the Jewish National Home from being ravaged by yet another set of developmentally disadvantaged set of nations (the Arab League States) and turning Israel from being the most advanced nation in the Middle East on the Human Development Index, into another failed example of adjacent failing Arab States.

Most Respectfully,
R

I think it's important to understand the lexicon, because the international law regarding those times was actually framed on a similar basis as the definition of an indigenous nation. It was specifically stated that a specific nation was to re-establish their homeland based on (claims of) historic ties and preservation.

Therefore Israel is an exemplary case in international law of an ancient indigenous nation that was successful in gaining effective sovereignty.
 
Last edited:
RE: The Official Discussion Thread for who is considered indigenous to Palestine?
※→ rylah, P F Tinmore, et al,

This has nothing to do with the joint Allied Powers decision to establish a "Jewish National Home."

The Jews were not the first people there nor were they ever the only people there.
(COMMENT)

It is not a matter of a claim...

It is a decision made to cure a specific problem that nearly extinguished the culture and people known as the Jews. It was a conscious decision to maintain (as close as possible) in its original (or what remains) state the Jewish Culture.

Who was there first, and who has the claim, is not relevant. The preservation of the Jewish People as part of humanity is the key.

There will always be those that are subpar cultures in the world that will not understand the need to protect and preserve the Jews from further decimation as that which has been inflicted upon then throughout history; and especially that which has ravaged them over the last century.

The intent, 100 years ago, when the rumble started, was to establish a Jewish National Home. Today, the intent is to protect the Jewish National Home from being ravaged by yet another set of developmentally disadvantaged set of nations (the Arab League States) and turning Israel from being the most advanced nation in the Middle East on the Human Development Index, into another failed example of adjacent failing Arab States.

Most Respectfully,
R
How does all this refute my post?
 
International Definition of Indigenous Rights
 
RE: The Official Discussion Thread for who is considered indigenous to Palestine?
※→ rylah, P F Tinmore, et al,

This has nothing to do with the joint Allied Powers decision to establish a "Jewish National Home."

The Jews were not the first people there nor were they ever the only people there.
(COMMENT)

It is not a matter of a claim...

It is a decision made to cure a specific problem that nearly extinguished the culture and people known as the Jews. It was a conscious decision to maintain (as close as possible) in its original (or what remains) state the Jewish Culture.

Who was there first, and who has the claim, is not relevant. The preservation of the Jewish People as part of humanity is the key.

There will always be those that are subpar cultures in the world that will not understand the need to protect and preserve the Jews from further decimation as that which has been inflicted upon then throughout history; and especially that which has ravaged them over the last century.

The intent, 100 years ago, when the rumble started, was to establish a Jewish National Home. Today, the intent is to protect the Jewish National Home from being ravaged by yet another set of developmentally disadvantaged set of nations (the Arab League States) and turning Israel from being the most advanced nation in the Middle East on the Human Development Index, into another failed example of adjacent failing Arab States.

Most Respectfully,
R
How does all this refute my post?

Completely.
 
ereRE: The Official Discussion Thread for who is considered indigenous to Palestine?
※→ P F Tinmore, et al,

OK, the question was never about who is "indigenous" and who is 'not indigenous." In fact, I do not know that the term "indigenous people" is even defined; let alone a brief on whether or not the Arab Palestinians are the indigenous inhabitance of the territory. They appear to be nothing more than the remnant population of former inhabitants.

This has nothing to do with the joint Allied Powers decision to establish a "Jewish National Home."

The Jews were not the first people there nor were they ever the only people there.
(COMMENT)

It is not a matter of a claim...

It is a decision made to cure a specific problem that nearly extinguished the culture and people known as the Jews. It was a conscious decision to maintain (as close as possible) in its original (or what remains) state the Jewish Culture.

Who was there first, and who has the claim, is not relevant. The preservation of the Jewish People as part of humanity is the key.

There will always be those that are subpar cultures in the world that will not understand the need to protect and preserve the Jews from further decimation as that which has been inflicted upon then throughout history; and especially that which has ravaged them over the last century.

The intent, 100 years ago, when the rumble started, was to establish a Jewish National Home. Today, the intent is to protect the Jewish National Home from being ravaged by yet another set of developmentally disadvantaged set of nations (the Arab League States) and turning Israel from being the most advanced nation in the Middle East on the Human Development Index, into another failed example of adjacent failing Arab States.

Most Respectfully,
R
How does all this refute my post?
(COMMENT)

My commentary was not intended to "refute" your flawed observation. It was intended to drag you back to what really has meaning: the joint Allied Powers decision to establish a "Jewish National Home."

The territory was not sovereign unto the Arab Palestinian (not yours to fight over). It was territory (from the Mediterranean to the frontier of Persia) laid down by the Ottoman Empire/Turkish Republic into the hands of the Allied Powers. The Ottoman Empire/Turkish Republic, having renounced all rights and title and the future of the territory, occupied by the Allied Powers concerned on the conclusion of the Great War.

Throughout history, there are examples after examples of instances where conflict was ended with the redistribution of territory as a compulsory outcome of the war. It was 100 years ago this week that in the
Mudros Agreement: Armistice with Turkey (October 30, 1918), that the Ottoman Empire/Turkish Republic
surrendered of all garrisons in Hedjaz, Assir, Yemen, Syria, and Mesopotamia to the nearest Allied Commander (except those necessary to maintain order).

If there is a legal claim ever to be made, it is not the Arab Palestinians that have any legal footing. The Arab Palestinians were not operating in favor during the Allied Powers in either the First World War, or the Second World War.

REFUTE! There is nothing to refute. The Arab Palestinians have demanded territorial sovereignty for more than a century; a sovereignty which they never had in the first place, which they did not fight for, nor were a party to its liberation from the Ottoman Empire/Turkish Republic.

What claim you believe that radiates from millennium past is completely irrelevant. The intent by the Allied Powers, was then, perfectly clear. Within such boundaries, as may be fixed and adopted by the said Powers, the establishment in Palestine of a national home for the Jewish people. It was their decision. And it is not the case where the United Nations of today, or any other subdivision thereof, especially the G-77, can refute.

Most Respectfully,
R
 
ereRE: The Official Discussion Thread for who is considered indigenous to Palestine?
※→ P F Tinmore, et al,

OK, the question was never about who is "indigenous" and who is 'not indigenous." In fact, I do not know that the term "indigenous people" is even defined; let alone a brief on whether or not the Arab Palestinians are the indigenous inhabitance of the territory. They appear to be nothing more than the remnant population of former inhabitants.

This has nothing to do with the joint Allied Powers decision to establish a "Jewish National Home."

The Jews were not the first people there nor were they ever the only people there.
(COMMENT)

It is not a matter of a claim...

It is a decision made to cure a specific problem that nearly extinguished the culture and people known as the Jews. It was a conscious decision to maintain (as close as possible) in its original (or what remains) state the Jewish Culture.

Who was there first, and who has the claim, is not relevant. The preservation of the Jewish People as part of humanity is the key.

There will always be those that are subpar cultures in the world that will not understand the need to protect and preserve the Jews from further decimation as that which has been inflicted upon then throughout history; and especially that which has ravaged them over the last century.

The intent, 100 years ago, when the rumble started, was to establish a Jewish National Home. Today, the intent is to protect the Jewish National Home from being ravaged by yet another set of developmentally disadvantaged set of nations (the Arab League States) and turning Israel from being the most advanced nation in the Middle East on the Human Development Index, into another failed example of adjacent failing Arab States.

Most Respectfully,
R
How does all this refute my post?
(COMMENT)

My commentary was not intended to "refute" your flawed observation. It was intended to drag you back to what really has meaning: the joint Allied Powers decision to establish a "Jewish National Home."

The territory was not sovereign unto the Arab Palestinian (not yours to fight over). It was territory (from the Mediterranean to the frontier of Persia) laid down by the Ottoman Empire/Turkish Republic into the hands of the Allied Powers. The Ottoman Empire/Turkish Republic, having renounced all rights and title and the future of the territory, occupied by the Allied Powers concerned on the conclusion of the Great War.

Throughout history, there are examples after examples of instances where conflict was ended with the redistribution of territory as a compulsory outcome of the war. It was 100 years ago this week that in the
Mudros Agreement: Armistice with Turkey (October 30, 1918), that the Ottoman Empire/Turkish Republic
surrendered of all garrisons in Hedjaz, Assir, Yemen, Syria, and Mesopotamia to the nearest Allied Commander (except those necessary to maintain order).

If there is a legal claim ever to be made, it is not the Arab Palestinians that have any legal footing. The Arab Palestinians were not operating in favor during the Allied Powers in either the First World War, or the Second World War.

REFUTE! There is nothing to refute. The Arab Palestinians have demanded territorial sovereignty for more than a century; a sovereignty which they never had in the first place, which they did not fight for, nor were a party to its liberation from the Ottoman Empire/Turkish Republic.

What claim you believe that radiates from millennium past is completely irrelevant. The intent by the Allied Powers, was then, perfectly clear. Within such boundaries, as may be fixed and adopted by the said Powers, the establishment in Palestine of a national home for the Jewish people. It was their decision. And it is not the case where the United Nations of today, or any other subdivision thereof, especially the G-77, can refute.

Most Respectfully,
R
If there is a legal claim ever to be made, it is not the Arab Palestinians that have any legal footing.
You keep glossing over the fact that the Palestinians, as the citizens of a defined territory, have the inalienable right to sovereignty. Nobody has the authority to violate their inalienable right to sovereignty.
 
You keep glossing over the fact that the Palestinians, as the citizens of a defined territory, have the inalienable right to sovereignty. Nobody has the authority to violate their inalienable right to sovereignty.

Exactly. That means the Jewish people have an inalienable right to sovereignty in all of Palestine. When is Jordan giving that over then?
 
RE: The Official Discussion Thread for who is considered indigenous to Palestine?
※→ P F Tinmore, et al,

You don't know what form an "inalienable right" takes! If you did, you would not say this.

You keep glossing over the fact that the Palestinians, as the citizens of a defined territory, have the inalienable right to sovereignty. Nobody has the authority to violate their inalienable right to sovereignty.
(COMMENT)

In a practical sense, no political constituency (in this example → Israel) has to forfeit any aspect, apportionment or sovereign control to any other political constituency just BECAUSE they raise the issue of an "inalienable right."

• POSITIVE RIGHTS •

Since the concept of rights limits the actions of the government, the only way to circumvent them is by adding new rights that are allegedly superior to the others. The concept of Positive Rights was developed. These new rights differ from the old rights. Instead of involving freedom from interference from others, these new rights demand goods and services.

The "positive" in positive rights refers to the fact that to satisfy these rights, other people must provide them. They require action from others, instead of inaction. A "right" to health care is such a right. In order to fulfill it, a doctor must be enslaved. The doctor may be paid of course, but then others are required to pay the bill.

Positive rights are not compatible with real rights, or "negative rights". The positive rights require actions on the part of others. Negative rights require that no man can be forced to do anything he doesn't want. The two are incompatible. Positive rights are accepted at the expense of negative rights. They cannot coexists, since they are polar opposites.

(CRITICAL POINTS)

• Both the Arab Palestinians and the Israelis must understand that each has an obligation to respect the principle of equal rights and self-determination of peoples, and to take other appropriate measures to strengthen universal peace. The Arab Paestinianmust observe the rights of the Israeli every bit as much as the inverse.
• Both the Arab Palestinians and the Israelis are obligated to NOT use the threat of force → or → actually use force against the territorial integrity or political independence of the other.
• The Israelis have derived thierterritorial claims prior to the 1988 Declaration of Indenpendence of the Palestinian State.
• In August 1988, the Israelis had territorial control of the West Bank and Jerusalem after the Hashemite Kingdom abandon their soveriegntyor claims ("cut all ties"); whereas the Independence and government of the Arab Palestinian was NOT yet declared.​

There is no law that obligated the Israelis to forfeit any territorial holdings, especially since the President of Palestine openly declared the Oslo Accords dissolved.

Human Rights are in the form of laws [International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (CCPR) and International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (CESCR)] that apply by convention to the entirety of the international community.

The people of Israel have the right of self-determination. By virtue of that right, they freely determine their political status and freely pursue their economic, social and cultural development; in the Middle East.

✪ By virtue of this right, under what authority do the Arab Palestinians attempt to claim, by force, that which Israel already established territorial integrity?

Most Respectfully,
R
 
There is no law that obligated the Israelis to forfeit any territorial holdings, especially since the President of Palestine openly declared the Oslo Accords dissolved.
Israel isn't required to forfeit anything.
 
RE: The Official Discussion Thread for who is considered indiginous to Palestine?
※→ P F Tinmore, et al,

OH, for crying out loud!

You are correct in that Israel should not be made to forfeit any territory that was not under Arab Palestinian control. It is under the Permanent Stats of Negotiation.

There is no law that obligated the Israelis to forfeit any territorial holdings, especially since the President of Palestine openly declared the Oslo Accords dissolved.
Israel isn't required to forfeit anything.
(COMMENT)

Despite the fact that the Palestinian Authority (PA) \ Palestinian Liberation Organization (PLO) has "never" established sovereign control of the territory which they demand, the PA \ PLO demand the 1967 border. The PA\PLO defines this border as the 1949 Armistice Line along with all legal modification thereto up to June 4th, 1967. They claim the Armistice Line is the internationally-recognized border between Israel and the occupied State of Palestine.

The Armistice Line of 1949 with Jordan is exactly that - with Jordan. It disolved in 1994 with the execution of the Peace Treaty between the Government of the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan and the Government of the State of Israel. The armistice agreement between the Hashemite Jordan Kingdom and Israel has been signed this evening, 3 April 1949, only remained in force until a peaceful settlement between the Parties (Jordan/Israel) was achieved through a treaty [See Article XII(2)]. The Arab Palestinians were NOT a party to either agreement.

More importantly, should be noted that Article VI(9) stipulates that: The Armistice Demarcation Lines defined in Articles V and VI of this Agreement are agreed upon by the Parties without prejudice to future territorial settlements or boundary lines or to claims of either Party relating thereto.

If the Arab Palestinians are going to use the Armistice Demarcation Lines, then they should recognize the flexability. If we look at Article VI(11) we see: The Armistice Demarcation Lines defined in this article and in article V shall be subject to such rectification as may be agreed upon by the Parties to this Agreement, (NOT the Arab Palestinians) and all such rectifications shall have the same force and effect as if they had been incorporated in full in this General Armistice Agreement.

But I think that everyone understands that the Armistice Agreement dissolved in1995 when the Peace Treaty took effect. The Arab Palestinians should not be held to those conditions.

Most Respectfully,
R
 
RE: The Official Discussion Thread for who is considered indiginous to Palestine?
※→ P F Tinmore, et al,

OH, for crying out loud!

You are correct in that Israel should not be made to forfeit any territory that was not under Arab Palestinian control. It is under the Permanent Stats of Negotiation.

There is no law that obligated the Israelis to forfeit any territorial holdings, especially since the President of Palestine openly declared the Oslo Accords dissolved.
Israel isn't required to forfeit anything.
(COMMENT)

Despite the fact that the Palestinian Authority (PA) \ Palestinian Liberation Organization (PLO) has "never" established sovereign control of the territory which they demand, the PA \ PLO demand the 1967 border. The PA\PLO defines this border as the 1949 Armistice Line along with all legal modification thereto up to June 4th, 1967. They claim the Armistice Line is the internationally-recognized border between Israel and the occupied State of Palestine.

The Armistice Line of 1949 with Jordan is exactly that - with Jordan. It disolved in 1994 with the execution of the Peace Treaty between the Government of the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan and the Government of the State of Israel. The armistice agreement between the Hashemite Jordan Kingdom and Israel has been signed this evening, 3 April 1949, only remained in force until a peaceful settlement between the Parties (Jordan/Israel) was achieved through a treaty [See Article XII(2)]. The Arab Palestinians were NOT a party to either agreement.

More importantly, should be noted that Article VI(9) stipulates that: The Armistice Demarcation Lines defined in Articles V and VI of this Agreement are agreed upon by the Parties without prejudice to future territorial settlements or boundary lines or to claims of either Party relating thereto.

If the Arab Palestinians are going to use the Armistice Demarcation Lines, then they should recognize the flexability. If we look at Article VI(11) we see: The Armistice Demarcation Lines defined in this article and in article V shall be subject to such rectification as may be agreed upon by the Parties to this Agreement, (NOT the Arab Palestinians) and all such rectifications shall have the same force and effect as if they had been incorporated in full in this General Armistice Agreement.

But I think that everyone understands that the Armistice Agreement dissolved in1995 when the Peace Treaty took effect. The Arab Palestinians should not be held to those conditions.

Most Respectfully,
R
Straw man argument.
 
RE: The Official Discussion Thread for who is considered indiginous to Palestine?
※→ P F Tinmore, et al,

OH, for crying out loud!

You are correct in that Israel should not be made to forfeit any territory that was not under Arab Palestinian control. It is under the Permanent Stats of Negotiation.

There is no law that obligated the Israelis to forfeit any territorial holdings, especially since the President of Palestine openly declared the Oslo Accords dissolved.
Israel isn't required to forfeit anything.
(COMMENT)

Despite the fact that the Palestinian Authority (PA) \ Palestinian Liberation Organization (PLO) has "never" established sovereign control of the territory which they demand, the PA \ PLO demand the 1967 border. The PA\PLO defines this border as the 1949 Armistice Line along with all legal modification thereto up to June 4th, 1967. They claim the Armistice Line is the internationally-recognized border between Israel and the occupied State of Palestine.

The Armistice Line of 1949 with Jordan is exactly that - with Jordan. It disolved in 1994 with the execution of the Peace Treaty between the Government of the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan and the Government of the State of Israel. The armistice agreement between the Hashemite Jordan Kingdom and Israel has been signed this evening, 3 April 1949, only remained in force until a peaceful settlement between the Parties (Jordan/Israel) was achieved through a treaty [See Article XII(2)]. The Arab Palestinians were NOT a party to either agreement.

More importantly, should be noted that Article VI(9) stipulates that: The Armistice Demarcation Lines defined in Articles V and VI of this Agreement are agreed upon by the Parties without prejudice to future territorial settlements or boundary lines or to claims of either Party relating thereto.

If the Arab Palestinians are going to use the Armistice Demarcation Lines, then they should recognize the flexability. If we look at Article VI(11) we see: The Armistice Demarcation Lines defined in this article and in article V shall be subject to such rectification as may be agreed upon by the Parties to this Agreement, (NOT the Arab Palestinians) and all such rectifications shall have the same force and effect as if they had been incorporated in full in this General Armistice Agreement.

But I think that everyone understands that the Armistice Agreement dissolved in1995 when the Peace Treaty took effect. The Arab Palestinians should not be held to those conditions.

Most Respectfully,
R
Straw man argument.
Tinmore endlessly empty responses = PRICELESS
 
From Time Immemorial – The Everlasting Jewish Tie to the Land of Israel
 
15th post
RE: The Official Discussion Thread for who is considered indiginous to Palestine?
※→ P F Tinmore, et al,

OH, for crying out loud!

You are correct in that Israel should not be made to forfeit any territory that was not under Arab Palestinian control. It is under the Permanent Stats of Negotiation.

There is no law that obligated the Israelis to forfeit any territorial holdings, especially since the President of Palestine openly declared the Oslo Accords dissolved.
Israel isn't required to forfeit anything.
(COMMENT)

Despite the fact that the Palestinian Authority (PA) \ Palestinian Liberation Organization (PLO) has "never" established sovereign control of the territory which they demand, the PA \ PLO demand the 1967 border. The PA\PLO defines this border as the 1949 Armistice Line along with all legal modification thereto up to June 4th, 1967. They claim the Armistice Line is the internationally-recognized border between Israel and the occupied State of Palestine.

The Armistice Line of 1949 with Jordan is exactly that - with Jordan. It disolved in 1994 with the execution of the Peace Treaty between the Government of the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan and the Government of the State of Israel. The armistice agreement between the Hashemite Jordan Kingdom and Israel has been signed this evening, 3 April 1949, only remained in force until a peaceful settlement between the Parties (Jordan/Israel) was achieved through a treaty [See Article XII(2)]. The Arab Palestinians were NOT a party to either agreement.

More importantly, should be noted that Article VI(9) stipulates that: The Armistice Demarcation Lines defined in Articles V and VI of this Agreement are agreed upon by the Parties without prejudice to future territorial settlements or boundary lines or to claims of either Party relating thereto.

If the Arab Palestinians are going to use the Armistice Demarcation Lines, then they should recognize the flexability. If we look at Article VI(11) we see: The Armistice Demarcation Lines defined in this article and in article V shall be subject to such rectification as may be agreed upon by the Parties to this Agreement, (NOT the Arab Palestinians) and all such rectifications shall have the same force and effect as if they had been incorporated in full in this General Armistice Agreement.

But I think that everyone understands that the Armistice Agreement dissolved in1995 when the Peace Treaty took effect. The Arab Palestinians should not be held to those conditions.

Most Respectfully,
R
Straw man argument.
Tinmore endlessly empty responses = PRICELESS

I wonder what his motive is. Because he's not convincing any of us with his bullshit.
 
RE: The Official Discussion Thread for who is considered indiginous to Palestine?
※→ P F Tinmore, et al,

OH, for crying out loud!

You are correct in that Israel should not be made to forfeit any territory that was not under Arab Palestinian control. It is under the Permanent Stats of Negotiation.

There is no law that obligated the Israelis to forfeit any territorial holdings, especially since the President of Palestine openly declared the Oslo Accords dissolved.
Israel isn't required to forfeit anything.
(COMMENT)

Despite the fact that the Palestinian Authority (PA) \ Palestinian Liberation Organization (PLO) has "never" established sovereign control of the territory which they demand, the PA \ PLO demand the 1967 border. The PA\PLO defines this border as the 1949 Armistice Line along with all legal modification thereto up to June 4th, 1967. They claim the Armistice Line is the internationally-recognized border between Israel and the occupied State of Palestine.

The Armistice Line of 1949 with Jordan is exactly that - with Jordan. It disolved in 1994 with the execution of the Peace Treaty between the Government of the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan and the Government of the State of Israel. The armistice agreement between the Hashemite Jordan Kingdom and Israel has been signed this evening, 3 April 1949, only remained in force until a peaceful settlement between the Parties (Jordan/Israel) was achieved through a treaty [See Article XII(2)]. The Arab Palestinians were NOT a party to either agreement.

More importantly, should be noted that Article VI(9) stipulates that: The Armistice Demarcation Lines defined in Articles V and VI of this Agreement are agreed upon by the Parties without prejudice to future territorial settlements or boundary lines or to claims of either Party relating thereto.

If the Arab Palestinians are going to use the Armistice Demarcation Lines, then they should recognize the flexability. If we look at Article VI(11) we see: The Armistice Demarcation Lines defined in this article and in article V shall be subject to such rectification as may be agreed upon by the Parties to this Agreement, (NOT the Arab Palestinians) and all such rectifications shall have the same force and effect as if they had been incorporated in full in this General Armistice Agreement.

But I think that everyone understands that the Armistice Agreement dissolved in1995 when the Peace Treaty took effect. The Arab Palestinians should not be held to those conditions.

Most Respectfully,
R
Straw man argument.
Tinmore endlessly empty responses = PRICELESS

I wonder what his motive is. Because he's not convincing any of us with his bullshit.
His reason is the same as all others who were taught that Israel is evil, and the Jews in it just as much.

Christian or Muslim devotion to what their ideologies are all about.
Keeping the Jews in their places, even if it is 6 feet under.
 
RE: The Official Discussion Thread for who is considered indiginous to Palestine?
※→ P F Tinmore, et al,

OH, for crying out loud!

You are correct in that Israel should not be made to forfeit any territory that was not under Arab Palestinian control. It is under the Permanent Stats of Negotiation.

Israel isn't required to forfeit anything.
(COMMENT)

Despite the fact that the Palestinian Authority (PA) \ Palestinian Liberation Organization (PLO) has "never" established sovereign control of the territory which they demand, the PA \ PLO demand the 1967 border. The PA\PLO defines this border as the 1949 Armistice Line along with all legal modification thereto up to June 4th, 1967. They claim the Armistice Line is the internationally-recognized border between Israel and the occupied State of Palestine.

The Armistice Line of 1949 with Jordan is exactly that - with Jordan. It disolved in 1994 with the execution of the Peace Treaty between the Government of the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan and the Government of the State of Israel. The armistice agreement between the Hashemite Jordan Kingdom and Israel has been signed this evening, 3 April 1949, only remained in force until a peaceful settlement between the Parties (Jordan/Israel) was achieved through a treaty [See Article XII(2)]. The Arab Palestinians were NOT a party to either agreement.

More importantly, should be noted that Article VI(9) stipulates that: The Armistice Demarcation Lines defined in Articles V and VI of this Agreement are agreed upon by the Parties without prejudice to future territorial settlements or boundary lines or to claims of either Party relating thereto.

If the Arab Palestinians are going to use the Armistice Demarcation Lines, then they should recognize the flexability. If we look at Article VI(11) we see: The Armistice Demarcation Lines defined in this article and in article V shall be subject to such rectification as may be agreed upon by the Parties to this Agreement, (NOT the Arab Palestinians) and all such rectifications shall have the same force and effect as if they had been incorporated in full in this General Armistice Agreement.

But I think that everyone understands that the Armistice Agreement dissolved in1995 when the Peace Treaty took effect. The Arab Palestinians should not be held to those conditions.

Most Respectfully,
R
Straw man argument.
Tinmore endlessly empty responses = PRICELESS

I wonder what his motive is. Because he's not convincing any of us with his bullshit.
His reason is the same as all others who were taught that Israel is evil, and the Jews in it just as much.

Christian or Muslim devotion to what their ideologies are all about.
Keeping the Jews in their places, even if it is 6 feet under.
RE: The Official Discussion Thread for who is considered indiginous to Palestine?
※→ P F Tinmore, et al,

OH, for crying out loud!

You are correct in that Israel should not be made to forfeit any territory that was not under Arab Palestinian control. It is under the Permanent Stats of Negotiation.

Israel isn't required to forfeit anything.
(COMMENT)

Despite the fact that the Palestinian Authority (PA) \ Palestinian Liberation Organization (PLO) has "never" established sovereign control of the territory which they demand, the PA \ PLO demand the 1967 border. The PA\PLO defines this border as the 1949 Armistice Line along with all legal modification thereto up to June 4th, 1967. They claim the Armistice Line is the internationally-recognized border between Israel and the occupied State of Palestine.

The Armistice Line of 1949 with Jordan is exactly that - with Jordan. It disolved in 1994 with the execution of the Peace Treaty between the Government of the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan and the Government of the State of Israel. The armistice agreement between the Hashemite Jordan Kingdom and Israel has been signed this evening, 3 April 1949, only remained in force until a peaceful settlement between the Parties (Jordan/Israel) was achieved through a treaty [See Article XII(2)]. The Arab Palestinians were NOT a party to either agreement.

More importantly, should be noted that Article VI(9) stipulates that: The Armistice Demarcation Lines defined in Articles V and VI of this Agreement are agreed upon by the Parties without prejudice to future territorial settlements or boundary lines or to claims of either Party relating thereto.

If the Arab Palestinians are going to use the Armistice Demarcation Lines, then they should recognize the flexability. If we look at Article VI(11) we see: The Armistice Demarcation Lines defined in this article and in article V shall be subject to such rectification as may be agreed upon by the Parties to this Agreement, (NOT the Arab Palestinians) and all such rectifications shall have the same force and effect as if they had been incorporated in full in this General Armistice Agreement.

But I think that everyone understands that the Armistice Agreement dissolved in1995 when the Peace Treaty took effect. The Arab Palestinians should not be held to those conditions.

Most Respectfully,
R
Straw man argument.
Tinmore endlessly empty responses = PRICELESS

I wonder what his motive is. Because he's not convincing any of us with his bullshit.
His reason is the same as all others who were taught that Israel is evil, and the Jews in it just as much.

Christian or Muslim devotion to what their ideologies are all about.
Keeping the Jews in their places, even if it is 6 feet under.

He doesn't even know any facts.
 
RE: The Official Discussion Thread for who is considered indiginous to Palestine?
※→ P F Tinmore, et al,

OH, for crying out loud!

You are correct in that Israel should not be made to forfeit any territory that was not under Arab Palestinian control. It is under the Permanent Stats of Negotiation.

There is no law that obligated the Israelis to forfeit any territorial holdings, especially since the President of Palestine openly declared the Oslo Accords dissolved.
Israel isn't required to forfeit anything.
(COMMENT)

Despite the fact that the Palestinian Authority (PA) \ Palestinian Liberation Organization (PLO) has "never" established sovereign control of the territory which they demand, the PA \ PLO demand the 1967 border. The PA\PLO defines this border as the 1949 Armistice Line along with all legal modification thereto up to June 4th, 1967. They claim the Armistice Line is the internationally-recognized border between Israel and the occupied State of Palestine.

The Armistice Line of 1949 with Jordan is exactly that - with Jordan. It disolved in 1994 with the execution of the Peace Treaty between the Government of the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan and the Government of the State of Israel. The armistice agreement between the Hashemite Jordan Kingdom and Israel has been signed this evening, 3 April 1949, only remained in force until a peaceful settlement between the Parties (Jordan/Israel) was achieved through a treaty [See Article XII(2)]. The Arab Palestinians were NOT a party to either agreement.

More importantly, should be noted that Article VI(9) stipulates that: The Armistice Demarcation Lines defined in Articles V and VI of this Agreement are agreed upon by the Parties without prejudice to future territorial settlements or boundary lines or to claims of either Party relating thereto.

If the Arab Palestinians are going to use the Armistice Demarcation Lines, then they should recognize the flexability. If we look at Article VI(11) we see: The Armistice Demarcation Lines defined in this article and in article V shall be subject to such rectification as may be agreed upon by the Parties to this Agreement, (NOT the Arab Palestinians) and all such rectifications shall have the same force and effect as if they had been incorporated in full in this General Armistice Agreement.

But I think that everyone understands that the Armistice Agreement dissolved in1995 when the Peace Treaty took effect. The Arab Palestinians should not be held to those conditions.

Most Respectfully,
R
The armistice line was between Israeli and Jordanian forces. It had nothing to do with Palestine.
 
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