montelatici
Gold Member
- Feb 5, 2014
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The only people that had the legal right to self determination in Palestine, pursuant to the LoN, were the inhabitants of Palestine at the time of signing of the LoN. The inhabitants of Palestine practiced different religions at the time, Judaism included. People that practiced these religions that were not inhabitants, did not have the right to self-determination in Palestine. It's really quite simple, the LoN did not envision the colonization of Palestine by Europeans, for example.
You haven't been keeping up with the discussion on this thread. rylah brought all kinds of proofs and links to prove that the Arabs of Palestine came from different Arab tribes from Arabia, Egypt, Yemen, etc. All the proof was so overwhelming that Tinmore claimed that he was an American despite the fact that his grandparents came from Scotland and Germany; therefore Palestinians whose grandparents came from Egypt are still Palestinians. I then called Tinmore a hypocrite and asked why then can't my cousins, whose grandparents came from Poland after WW2, not be called Israelis? Then you come along and say that the Palestinians are direct descendants from the Canaanites of long ago. Tinmore had already conceded, by that point, that the Arabs of Palestine came from all over Arabia and the Middle East. Try to keep up!
There was no proof at all, just Zionist propaganda. But it really doesn't matter, the LoN was clear that the inhabitants were to be protected and receive the tutelage to achieve self-determination. The inhabitants were 95% Christians and Muslims. The Europeans were not inhabitants. Get it?