'Palestinian'

There were thousands of (registered) Jews mainly in Judea Samaria and the Galilee.
Jews were called Palestinians, even by Europeans.

This assertion keeps cropping up time after time, but when I ask for corroborating evidence that this was in fact the case, I get no response; perhaps you can provide contemporary evidence that Jewish immigrants and settlers in Palestine after WW1 were referred to as Palestinians?

Well You can deflect to whatever You see clever.
But for some reason this is what Emmanuel Kant wrote:

The Palestinians living among us have, for the most part, earned a not unfounded reputation for being cheaters, because of their spirit of usury since their exile. Certainly, it seems strange to conceive of a nation of cheaters; but it is just as odd to think of a nation of merchants, the great majority of whom, bound by an ancient superstition that is recognized by the State they live in, seek no civil dignity and try to make up for this loss by the advantage of duping the people among whom they find refuge, and even one another. The situation could not be otherwise, given a whole nation of merchants, as non-productive members of society (for example, the Jews in Poland). So their constitution, which is sanctioned by ancient precepts and even by the people among whom they live (since we have certain sacred writings in common with them), cannot consistently be abolished — even though the supreme principle of their morality in trading with us is "Let the buyer beware." I shall not engage in the futile undertaking of lecturing to these people, in terms of morality, about cheating and honesty. Instead, I shall present my conjectures about the origin of this peculiar constitution (the constitution, namely, of a nation of merchants).

Kant: Anthropology from a Pragmatic Point of View


9780809320608_0.jpg

Well that's interesting, but you still haven't provided any evidence to answer my actual question, "...perhaps you can provide contemporary evidence that Jewish immigrants and settlers in Palestine after WW1 were referred to as Palestinians?"

As for Kant's comment, it's also interesting he seems to differentiate between "Palestinians" and "Jews"
 
There were thousands of (registered) Jews mainly in Judea Samaria and the Galilee.
Jews were called Palestinians, even by Europeans.

This assertion keeps cropping up time after time, but when I ask for corroborating evidence that this was in fact the case, I get no response; perhaps you can provide contemporary evidence that Jewish immigrants and settlers in Palestine after WW1 were referred to as Palestinians?

Well You can deflect to whatever You see clever.
But for some reason this is what Emmanuel Kant wrote:

The Palestinians living among us have, for the most part, earned a not unfounded reputation for being cheaters, because of their spirit of usury since their exile. Certainly, it seems strange to conceive of a nation of cheaters; but it is just as odd to think of a nation of merchants, the great majority of whom, bound by an ancient superstition that is recognized by the State they live in, seek no civil dignity and try to make up for this loss by the advantage of duping the people among whom they find refuge, and even one another. The situation could not be otherwise, given a whole nation of merchants, as non-productive members of society (for example, the Jews in Poland). So their constitution, which is sanctioned by ancient precepts and even by the people among whom they live (since we have certain sacred writings in common with them), cannot consistently be abolished — even though the supreme principle of their morality in trading with us is "Let the buyer beware." I shall not engage in the futile undertaking of lecturing to these people, in terms of morality, about cheating and honesty. Instead, I shall present my conjectures about the origin of this peculiar constitution (the constitution, namely, of a nation of merchants).

Kant: Anthropology from a Pragmatic Point of View


9780809320608_0.jpg

Well that's interesting, but you still haven't provided any evidence to answer my actual question, "...perhaps you can provide contemporary evidence that Jewish immigrants and settlers in Palestine after WW1 were referred to as Palestinians?"

As for Kant's comment, it's also interesting he seems to differentiate between "Palestinians" and "Jews"

You question was a deflection, therefore irrelevant.
I've made my point and provided the evidence.

Why would Europeans call Jews "Palestinians among us" some 100 years before the 1st Zionist immigration to Palestine?

The Palestinians living among us have, for the most part, earned a not unfounded reputation for being cheaters, because of their spirit of usury since their exile. Certainly, it seems strange to conceive of a nation of cheaters; but it is just as odd to think of a nation of merchants, the great majority of whom, bound by an ancient superstition that is recognized by the State they live in, seek no civil dignity and try to make up for this loss by the advantage of duping the people among whom they find refuge, and even one another. The situation could not be otherwise, given a whole nation of merchants, as non-productive members of society (for example, the Jews in Poland). So their constitution, which is sanctioned by ancient precepts and even by the people among whom they live (since we have certain sacred writings in common with them), cannot consistently be abolished — even though the supreme principle of their morality in trading with us is "Let the buyer beware." I shall not engage in the futile undertaking of lecturing to these people, in terms of morality, about cheating and honesty. Instead, I shall present my conjectures about the origin of this peculiar constitution (the constitution, namely, of a nation of merchants).

Kant: Anthropology from a Pragmatic Point of View
 
Or when You have no significant cultural or historic connection to the land.

So much that You have to wait centuries before a foreign power decides to invent a flag for You...so much for native people.

Palestinians 'became a people' as a result of the occupation- not in spite of it.
The Palestinians became citizens of Palestine in 1924.

Under British occupation. And I think Jews for some strange reasons were included too.
So were Jews 'Palestinians' as well?
Yes, all of the people in Palestine who had Turkish citizenship became Palestinians. This included everybody without distinction.

Ok so that time Palestinians gained citizenship under British rule.
Were Jews Palestinians then?
Sure, the Jews who held Turkish citizenship became Palestinians.

This is in accordance with the rule of state succession in international law.

So this happened decades after political Zionism was brought to Palestine. The idea of self determination as a people came from Jews and Britain.

In other words here too, those who call themselves today Palestinians took the idea of being a distinct nation from others. Otherwise they'd still call themselves Syrians or Egyptians.

Palestinians are a result of foreign occupation and rules, not the wish for distinct self determination.
 
There were thousands of (registered) Jews mainly in Judea Samaria and the Galilee.
Jews were called Palestinians, even by Europeans.

This assertion keeps cropping up time after time, but when I ask for corroborating evidence that this was in fact the case, I get no response; perhaps you can provide contemporary evidence that Jewish immigrants and settlers in Palestine after WW1 were referred to as Palestinians?

Well You can deflect to whatever You see clever.
But for some reason this is what Emmanuel Kant wrote:

The Palestinians living among us have, for the most part, earned a not unfounded reputation for being cheaters, because of their spirit of usury since their exile. Certainly, it seems strange to conceive of a nation of cheaters; but it is just as odd to think of a nation of merchants, the great majority of whom, bound by an ancient superstition that is recognized by the State they live in, seek no civil dignity and try to make up for this loss by the advantage of duping the people among whom they find refuge, and even one another. The situation could not be otherwise, given a whole nation of merchants, as non-productive members of society (for example, the Jews in Poland). So their constitution, which is sanctioned by ancient precepts and even by the people among whom they live (since we have certain sacred writings in common with them), cannot consistently be abolished — even though the supreme principle of their morality in trading with us is "Let the buyer beware." I shall not engage in the futile undertaking of lecturing to these people, in terms of morality, about cheating and honesty. Instead, I shall present my conjectures about the origin of this peculiar constitution (the constitution, namely, of a nation of merchants).

Kant: Anthropology from a Pragmatic Point of View


9780809320608_0.jpg

Well that's interesting, but you still haven't provided any evidence to answer my actual question, "...perhaps you can provide contemporary evidence that Jewish immigrants and settlers in Palestine after WW1 were referred to as Palestinians?"

As for Kant's comment, it's also interesting he seems to differentiate between "Palestinians" and "Jews"

You question was a deflection, therefore irrelevant.
I've made my point and provided the evidence.

Why would Europeans call Jews "Palestinians among us" some 100 years before the 1st Zionist immigration to Palestine?

The Palestinians living among us have, for the most part, earned a not unfounded reputation for being cheaters, because of their spirit of usury since their exile. Certainly, it seems strange to conceive of a nation of cheaters; but it is just as odd to think of a nation of merchants, the great majority of whom, bound by an ancient superstition that is recognized by the State they live in, seek no civil dignity and try to make up for this loss by the advantage of duping the people among whom they find refuge, and even one another. The situation could not be otherwise, given a whole nation of merchants, as non-productive members of society (for example, the Jews in Poland). So their constitution, which is sanctioned by ancient precepts and even by the people among whom they live (since we have certain sacred writings in common with them), cannot consistently be abolished — even though the supreme principle of their morality in trading with us is "Let the buyer beware." I shall not engage in the futile undertaking of lecturing to these people, in terms of morality, about cheating and honesty. Instead, I shall present my conjectures about the origin of this peculiar constitution (the constitution, namely, of a nation of merchants).

Kant: Anthropology from a Pragmatic Point of View

All you've demonstrated is that Emannual Kant called Jewish Palestinians, Palestinians; not that this was widespread terminology in use in the 18th Century in Europe outside of Prussia. In the 16th and 17th Centuries the Spanish referred to Protestant Christian churches as Mosques, didn't make Protestant Christians, Muslims. My question asked you to, " provide contemporary evidence that Jewish immigrants and settlers in Palestine after WW1 were referred to as Palestinians?" This is the assertion made by the Hasbara Trolls here and elsewhere, Kant has never been mentioned until now.
 
I like Your arguments desperate. Why all the stress?

Here You admitted to editing a document that in the 1st place looked fishy, because You cut and used pieces of it...

"I aligned the left and right pages correctly as the single scan had them unaligned. Another lying Zionist complained about it and I aligned them, you lying Zionist scum. "

Judaism and zionism are extreme opposites - post #26


You see You just can't do so and claim that You have
"THE ONLY TRUE SOURCE".

Ahhh, aligning pages on a scanner is editing. That's the Zionist mentality.
 
"Palestinians" [are an] Arab people No one heard of before 1967 before Israeli governments certified this piece of Propaganda...
As has been noted many times before, prior to 1948, that is before Jews had begun to call themselves Israelis,
the ONLY persons known as "Palestinians" were Jews,
with the Arabs much preferrring to identify themselves as part of the great Arab nation.
- David Basch


"...Palestine does not belong to the "Palestinians" and never did. They did not even call themselves Palestinians until the middle 1960s.
Before that, the word "Palestinian" meant "Jewish,"
while the local Arabs called themselves simply "Arabs."
The creation of the PLO by Gamal Abdul Nasser in 1964 was a brilliant ploy to distort the parameters of the dispute, largely for propaganda purposes.
It was inconvenient to have a conflict between 20-odd Arab states with an area 530 times greater than Israel, a population more than 30 times greater than Israel's and enormously richer natural resources.
Far better to Invent a "Palestinian" nation that would be the eternal "underdog," -
a nation consisting partly of Immigrants from Syria and other Arab countries who came to benefit from the rapidly growing economy Zionist Jews created..."
- westerndefense.org


"There is NO language known as Palestinian. - There is NO distinct Palestinian culture.
There has NEVER been a land known as Palestine governed by Palestinians.
Palestinians are Arabs, indistinguishable from Jordanians (another Recent Invention)
, Syrians, Lebanese, Iraqis, etc.
Keep in mind that the Arabs control 99.9% of the Middle East lands. Israel represents one-tenth of 1% of the landmass.
But that's too much for the Arabs. They want it all. And that is ultimately what the fighting in Israel is about today. Greed. Pride. Envy. Covetousness.
No matter how many land concessions the Israelis make, it will never be enough....""
- Joseph Farah, Arab-American journalist


So before the creation of the State of Israel, who were the Palestinians?
ANSWER:
Until 1950, the name of the Jerusalem Post was THE PALESTINE POST;
the journal of the Zionist Organization of America was NEW PALESTINE;
Bank Leumi was the ANGLO-PALESTINE BANK;
the Israel Electric Company was the PALESTINE ELECTRIC COMPANY;
there was the PALESTINE FOUNDATION FUND and.... the PALESTINE PHILHARMONIC.
All these were JEWISH organizations.
In America, Zionist youngsters sang "PALESTINE, MY PALESTINE", "PALESTINE SCOUT SONG" and "PALESTINE SPRING SONG"
In general, the terms Palestine and Palestinian referred to the region of Palestine as it was. Thus "Palestinian Jew" and "Palestinian Arab" are straightforward expressions.
"Palestine Post" and "Palestine Philharmonic" refer to these bodies as they existed in a place then known as Palestine.
The adoption of a Palestinian identity by the Arabs of Palestine is a Recent phenomenon.
Until the establishment of the State of Israel, and for another Decade or so, the term Palestinian applied almost exclusively to the Jews.

- 'Palestinians' - The Peace FAQ
-
-
Really old cold dead thread.

I wonder who resurrected this ??
 
I do believe Palestinians are real people even include some Jews. The jews came from Europe, Germany, Poland, Russia and Ukraine. The Palestinians never left. How would you like the Indians to take the US back and say us European whites do not belong here? Israel was to be set up as a secular state, not a jewish one, Russia is the third most spoken language in Israel.
"Palestinians" [are an] Arab people No one heard of before 1967 before Israeli governments certified this piece of Propaganda...
As has been noted many times before, prior to 1948, that is before Jews had begun to call themselves Israelis,
the ONLY persons known as "Palestinians" were Jews,
with the Arabs much preferrring to identify themselves as part of the great Arab nation.
- David Basch


"...Palestine does not belong to the "Palestinians" and never did. They did not even call themselves Palestinians until the middle 1960s.
Before that, the word "Palestinian" meant "Jewish,"
while the local Arabs called themselves simply "Arabs."
The creation of the PLO by Gamal Abdul Nasser in 1964 was a brilliant ploy to distort the parameters of the dispute, largely for propaganda purposes.
It was inconvenient to have a conflict between 20-odd Arab states with an area 530 times greater than Israel, a population more than 30 times greater than Israel's and enormously richer natural resources.
Far better to Invent a "Palestinian" nation that would be the eternal "underdog," -
a nation consisting partly of Immigrants from Syria and other Arab countries who came to benefit from the rapidly growing economy Zionist Jews created..."
- westerndefense.org


"There is NO language known as Palestinian. - There is NO distinct Palestinian culture.
There has NEVER been a land known as Palestine governed by Palestinians.
Palestinians are Arabs, indistinguishable from Jordanians (another Recent Invention)
, Syrians, Lebanese, Iraqis, etc.
Keep in mind that the Arabs control 99.9% of the Middle East lands. Israel represents one-tenth of 1% of the landmass.
But that's too much for the Arabs. They want it all. And that is ultimately what the fighting in Israel is about today. Greed. Pride. Envy. Covetousness.
No matter how many land concessions the Israelis make, it will never be enough....""
- Joseph Farah, Arab-American journalist


So before the creation of the State of Israel, who were the Palestinians?
ANSWER:
Until 1950, the name of the Jerusalem Post was THE PALESTINE POST;
the journal of the Zionist Organization of America was NEW PALESTINE;
Bank Leumi was the ANGLO-PALESTINE BANK;
the Israel Electric Company was the PALESTINE ELECTRIC COMPANY;
there was the PALESTINE FOUNDATION FUND and.... the PALESTINE PHILHARMONIC.
All these were JEWISH organizations.
In America, Zionist youngsters sang "PALESTINE, MY PALESTINE", "PALESTINE SCOUT SONG" and "PALESTINE SPRING SONG"
In general, the terms Palestine and Palestinian referred to the region of Palestine as it was. Thus "Palestinian Jew" and "Palestinian Arab" are straightforward expressions.
"Palestine Post" and "Palestine Philharmonic" refer to these bodies as they existed in a place then known as Palestine.
The adoption of a Palestinian identity by the Arabs of Palestine is a Recent phenomenon.
Until the establishment of the State of Israel, and for another Decade or so, the term Palestinian applied almost exclusively to the Jews.

- 'Palestinians' - The Peace FAQ
-
-
Bump !!

Hahaha !!
 
most of these spammers and trolls were already on my iggy list -- but I let them off for Lent -- but now most of them have ended up back on it ... .
 
You seem to have entirely missed the point. =/ But I'll go through it again anyway.

Zionism was 100 Year old Nationalist revival Movement of the Jews. Reviving one of 3200 years and existed for 1400 years,
'Palestinianism' was NOT.
Not only did they Not accept the partition creating 'Palestine' in 1948, but for 20 years subsequent the land was Annexed by Jordan and there was NO 'Palestine' nor even really 'palestinians',
as Arabs never really bought that crap until about the time they lost the WB to Israel in the 1967 War. Otherwise there would still be passport-carrying Jordanians.
Jordan is 70% 'Palestinian' (whatever that is) as it's Queen.
In fact, in 'Black September' (1970), Arafat & co. tried to Make Jordan the Palestinian state it is/was by overthrowing King Hussein.
But they lost-- and it was back to 'Israel' and wanting the West Bank which was renounced in the 1964 PLO Charter.
Very Little between American and Canadian.. perhaps except Shared 300+ years histories of each.

Again, the main point of this is LAND. Palestinians are linguistically and culturally "Arab" peoples, the key point of their identity is the fact that they or their ancestors lived in the region of historic Palestine. All that you can claim is that they're "just Arabs," which is false and, frankly, stupid - a Yemeni is an Arab too, so is a Moroccan, yet they're not the same, and they live thousands of miles from each other. Again, someone from Canada might have the exact same language, exact same skin color, exact same white anglo-protestant ethno-religious background as someone from the US, it doesn't give anybody the right to come to Canada and cleanse it because "they're the same as Americas [according to me]." What separates a Canadian from an American is the fact that one LIVES in the LAND of Canada and another LIVES in the LAND of America, hence they subscribe to different national identities and are not the same - a Canadian does not consider himself an American, just like Palestinians don't consider themselves Iraqis. Even WITHIN countries the culture varies - New York has a different "culture" from Texas, even if they both share American culture.

And just because America became a country 200 years ago but most Arab countries became countries 70 years ago doesn't make a difference, unless you're willing to sit down now and explain to everyone here at what arbitrary point in time (in years) does an identity become "legitimate" enough for you - is it 20 years? 40 years? 200 years? 2000 years? And WHY?

That half of Jordan identifies itself as Palestinian is, again, irrelevant. Most Jews live in the US, so I guess Israel is not needed right? Or what, is it because it's not ruled by Jews that it's not appropriate? Neither is Jordan, so I guess it's not appropriate either. That is, if we're being honest and holding everyone to the same standard.

Much bigger between Americans and Mexicans who are a different ethnicity/language/culture (which is why you Didn't make THAT comparison) and part of whose Land we Americans now sit.

Don't see the relevance. Explain.

Jews are Just Jews, while Arabs have 22 states, many arbitrarily bordered by the Ottoman Break up.
'Iraqis', 'Jordanians', 'Palestinians' were conqueror constructs, NOT peoples. Of course people only whine about one tiny part of this giant allocation in which Arabs were the big winners.

Nearly every country in the world today, including most of the Americas, Africa, and Oceania are based on conqueror constructs thanks to a history of imperialism and colonialism. There is absolutely no "ethnic" differences between New Zealanders and Australians and Britons and Canadians, yet they're not all the same [again] or any less legitimate. In reality, all borders are illegitimate arbitrary creations that don't follow any real logic, but that is the way the world is ordered and hence the reality we have to deal with. I don't know if you have ever seen a map of the US, but there's a suspiciously long straight line running from the great lakes to the pacific that surely respects no ethnic, linguistic, or cultural divisions and resulted from the US bargaining with Britain, and is the only reason people in norther Minnesota and N Dakota today aren't Canadian. That's the way it is and it doesn't make it any more or less legitimate. The fact is that TODAY Iraqis, Jordanians, and Palestinians are people, specifically Arab people who live in the land spaces that today are called those names, no different from any other country.

And they, those local-and-Transient-left-over-non-Jordan-arabs got/were offered the vast majority of the Land.
The Jews only got 13% of British Mandate 'Palestine'.
Jordan (Given to a Hashemite SAUDI Prince as spoils) was/is 77%; 'Palestine 10%. Meaning Arabs/Palestinians got 87% of the Mandate.
And Half of the Jews 13% was the thought-useless Negev Desert. (and 2/3 including the Half of Israel that is the Negev Desert was Ottoman/British STATE LAND, owned by NO Arab)

This is exactly what I'm talking about. The British Mandate of Palestine itself was entirely arbitrarily constructed in the 1920s by a caretaker colonial administration. During Ottoman times what is now Jordan was entirely a different province and what is now Israel/OPTs were separated into three or four Ottoman Seljuks, all of which had a huge majority of Arabs and only a tiny percentage of Jews. And that's what the point is - whether they were there, they LIVED there, not in Algeria or in Kuwait, but THERE. That's why they're not "just Arabs." That's why Israelis are not "just Jews" anymore, because they live THERE.

That's why it's irrelevant how you frame it, what it comes down to is advocating ethnic cleansing: you want to claim that there is no such thing as palestinians so that you can legitimize your belief that Israel is justified in kicking every Palestinian out of where they've always lived and their ancestors lived because they're "just Arabs" and so they can go live in any other Arab place. Until you go ahead and explain that this would be legitimate for any other country - that anybody can walk into Austria because theyre "just Germans" or that anybody can take over Singapore because they're "just Chinese" we know that you're just fulfilling the role of a propagandist for one side's violence.

It does but only now. But let's not kid ourselves about "some great country called Palestine being overrun by the Jews".
What makes a 'people' is Culture, Language, Ethnicity/Race, shared History, etc and they know it.
Jews know they are a people.

No, actually they're not, by YOUR own arbitrary standards they would not qualify as a people for most of the past 2000 years. This is just sad. By your own arbitrary definition of what makes a "people", not mine (I don't have one, I'm so naive that I assume that when millions of people define themselves as something, I should be inclined to believe them).

Jews did not have the same language until the 1900s. Hebrew was a dead language only used for liturgical purposes, just like Latin, for over 1500 years. The vast majority of Jews did not speak Hebrew. Jews are not all of the same race or ethnicity - there's Slavic Jews, Western European Jews, Black Ethiopian Jews, Arab Jews. They did not have a shared history - there was a hugely spread out diaspora living all over the world with their own individual histories - and there still are to a degree. That's why all your "parameters" are useless. The only relevant thing is that Jews KNOW they are a people. Hence, they are a people - like Palestinians feel that they are a people. Whether they speak different languages, have different histories, or are of different races is entirely irrelevant.

And Arabs under various new, made-up, misgrouped (ie 'Iraq'), and old names got 99% of the Ottoman Break up.The problem, as you unwitting quoted above, was they wanted 100%.
But Arabs overall did very well in the Break-up. Perhaps ruling 110% of their 'original Range'.

"Arabs" got countries where they lived under Ottoman rule. Turks got Turkey, where they lived. The Kurds did get screwed over, but at least they're still where they lived, not getting bulldozed out of their land anymore. Again, what happened elsewhere is irrelevant to the discussion at hand.

What is relevant is that the Arabs of historic Palestine, today known as Palestinians, wanted 100% because they basically were 100% until mass immigration of Jews began in the 1920s; their population began doubling every 10 years, it began to be overrun by Jews basically. Even in 48, Jews were only a third of the population, and they also wanted 100%.

I think most people, Israelis and Jews, know they will not have 100%. But those that do on either side, regardless of all the false justifications they can give, whether you with your "palestinians aren't real" or "palestinians don't deserve to live there" or people on the other side with their "Jews aren't real" or "Jews stole all the land so they must be driven out" - it's pathetic. They can see very clearly the other sides terrible propositions, but cannot come to terms with the fact that they're advocating the same exact thing. It's called ethnic cleansing. Both sides propose it, both are wrong. Everything else is just a veil to justify it - there is no justification for it, so stop trying.

The only real loser the Larger True People (Culture, Language, Ethicity) KURDS.
But you don't here much about that, and certainly You aren't/haven't going to make an issue of that.

Sure that Kurds are a people. I'm not going to deny that. If Kurds want a state, they should have one, Britain should've carved a Kurdish state. If they wanted to separate from Iraq/Turkey/Syria/Iran, I'd be all for it, and if they were oppressed (as they have been for ages by all of those regimes) I'll be the first to condemn it. This thread isn't about Kurds though. Feel free to make one and I'll go right to it.
Looks like you swallowed the troll bait.

:D
 
They did not even call themselves Palestinians until the middle 1960s.
Al Hambra Theatre, Jaffa 1937, flying Palestinian flag.
Then Jordan is "palestine" for all intents and purposes, a palistani vaterland to drum and trumpet a return to, that is, because the flag is the jordanian al Urdun, adopted in 1928, while the palistanian das plagiat rag flag originates in 1994.
The unfortunate Kingdom Of Jordan has inherited the refugee problem.

The UN should relocate them to Saudi Arabia.

The Saudi's have more money and should spend some of it on their brother Muslims rather than all on harem girls.
 
Yeah, yeah "Palestinians don't exist" argument. It's irrelevant when the name "Palestinian" began to be used. "Israelis" didn't exist either before 1948 - how does that make them any less "real"? The assertion that a "Palestinian is indistinguishable from Jordanians (another Recent Invention)" is retarded, and wouldn't hold up anywhere else -
Zionism was 100 Year old Nationalist revival Movement of the Jews. Reviving one of 3200 years and existed for 1400 years,
'Palestinianism' was NOT.
Not only did they Not accept the partition creating 'Palestine' in 1948, but for 20 years subsequent the land was Annexed by Jordan and there was NO 'Palestine' nor even really 'palestinians', as Arabs never really bought that crap until app they lost the WB to Israel in the 1967 War. Otherwise there would still be Jordainians.
Jordan is 70% 'Palestinian' (whatever that is)
In fact, in 'Black September' (1970), Arafat and co tried to Make Jordan the Palestinian state it is/as by overthrowing King Hussein. But they lost-- and it was back to 'Israel' and wanting the West Bank which was renounced in the 1964 PLO Charter.


What's the difference between an American and a Canadian? Mexico and Central America were all one spanish viceroyalty in colonial times, ..
Very Little between American and Canadian.. perhaps except Shared 300+ years histories of each.
Much bigger between Americans and Mexicans who are a different Race and part of whose Land Americans now sit.
Jews are Just Jews, while Arabs have 22 states, many arbitrarily bordered by the Ottoman Break up.
'Iraqis', 'Jordanians', 'Palestinians' were conqueror constructs, NOT peoples.


And they got/were offered the vast majority of the Land.
The Jews only got 13% of British Mandate 'Palestine'.
Jordan (Given to a Hashemite SAUDI Prince as spoils) was/is 77%,'Palestine 10%. Meaning Arabs/Palestinians got 87% of the Mandate.
And half of the Jews 13% was the Negev Desert. (and 2/3 including the Half of Israel that is the Negev Desert was Ottoman/British STATE LAND, owned by NO Arab)

That a properly "Palestinian" identity is new doesn't mean anything, and it's not up to [Iyou[/I] to say to say whose identities are legitimate or not. The fact that 13 million people identify themselves as "Palestinian" is what gives the identity legitimacy -
It does but only now. But let's not kid ourselves about "some great country called Palestine being overrun by the Jews".
What makes a 'people' is culture, Language, Race, shared History, etc and they know it.
Jews know they are a people. Tibetans, Mongols, Turks, Kurds... and Arabs. (Nicht Palestinians)

In any case, identity is not a static thing and it's not mutually exclusive. A Palestinian is usually also an Arab, just like an Israeli is usually also a Jew, but he's not "just a Jew." Just because there's a larger group of people who think of themselves as Arab doesn't make "Palestinian" any less real - by the same logic, most people who consider themselves Jews don't even live in Israel - so what? This doesn't make an Israel identity any less "legitimate" or compromised. But of course that's "us," not "them" so the standards don't apply.
Continuing...
Arabs are indeed a People. Thus Pan-Arabism.
'Palestinian' like 'Jordanian' were Not.
And Arabs under various new, made-up, misgrouped (ie 'Iraq'), and old names got 99% of the Ottoman Break up.

The problem,as you unwitting quoted above was they wanted 100%.
But Arabs overall did very well in the Break-up. Perhaps ruling 110% of their original 'Range'.
The only real loser the Larger True People (Culture, Language, Ethicity) KURDS.
But you don't here much about that, and certainly You aren't/haven't going to make an issue of that.
-
-

(and was Ottoman/British STATEE LAND, owned by NO Arab)

Britain administered Palestine it did not take possession.

The Courts of Palestine and Great Britain decided that title to the properties shown on the Ottoman Civil list had been ceded to the government of Palestine as an allied successor state.

State of Palestine - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Looks like you took the troll bait too.

:D
 
Boyz and girlz, when you feed a troll you nourish it.

Bad, bad, bad !!!
 
So a British desined flag is actually a Palestinian flag of a nation claiming to inhabit the land for millenias...and no distinct symbol?

Why is everything portrayed as 'palestinian' comes from foreign places and cultures?
Shit like that happens when you are born under occupation.

Or when You have no significant cultural or historic connection to the land.

So much that You have to wait centuries before a foreign power decides to invent a flag for You...so much for native people.

Palestinians 'became a people' as a result of the occupation- not in spite of it.
The Palestinians became citizens of Palestine in 1924.

Under British occupation. And I think Jews for some strange reasons were included too.
So were Jews 'Palestinians' as well?
Yes, all of the people in Palestine who had Turkish citizenship became Palestinians. This included everybody without distinction.

So You say they were 'Palestinian Jews'?
 
Shit like that happens when you are born under occupation.

Or when You have no significant cultural or historic connection to the land.

So much that You have to wait centuries before a foreign power decides to invent a flag for You...so much for native people.

Palestinians 'became a people' as a result of the occupation- not in spite of it.
The Palestinians became citizens of Palestine in 1924.

Under British occupation. And I think Jews for some strange reasons were included too.
So were Jews 'Palestinians' as well?
Yes, all of the people in Palestine who had Turkish citizenship became Palestinians. This included everybody without distinction.

So You say they were 'Palestinian Jews'?
Sure. I have always said that.

As for the Arab and Jewish Turks who were residing in Palestine, another calculation is required. In mid-1925, the number of Arabs in the total population was 717,006 inhabitants: 641,494 Muslims and 75,512 Christians.145 There were also 8,507 persons who were classified as Others,146 mainly Druze, Baha’i and Samiritans – all were Arabs in fact. The number of Arab immigrants who entered Palestine and registered therein as residents from 1920 to 1925 was 2,783.147 Thus, the net number of Arabs who were Ottomans, and then automatically acquired Palestinian nationality, was as follows: (717,006 + 8,507) – 2,783 = 722,730, about 99 % of the total population in Palestine at the time. On the other hand, the number of Jews within the total population, at the same moment, was 121,725.148 Of these, the majority were foreigners: 37,997 acquired provisional Palestinian nationality in 1922, as mentioned above, plus 76,585 registered as immigrants upon entering Palestine between 1920 and 1925.149 Thus, the net number of Jews who were Turkish and then became Palestinian citizens was: 121,725 - (37,997 + 76,585) = 7,143 individuals, a bit below 1 % of the total population.

Genesis of Citizenship in Palestine and Israel
 
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There were thousands of (registered) Jews mainly in Judea Samaria and the Galilee.
Jews were called Palestinians, even by Europeans.

This assertion keeps cropping up time after time, but when I ask for corroborating evidence that this was in fact the case, I get no response; perhaps you can provide contemporary evidence that Jewish immigrants and settlers in Palestine after WW1 were referred to as Palestinians?

Well You can deflect to whatever You see clever.
But for some reason this is what Emmanuel Kant wrote:

The Palestinians living among us have, for the most part, earned a not unfounded reputation for being cheaters, because of their spirit of usury since their exile. Certainly, it seems strange to conceive of a nation of cheaters; but it is just as odd to think of a nation of merchants, the great majority of whom, bound by an ancient superstition that is recognized by the State they live in, seek no civil dignity and try to make up for this loss by the advantage of duping the people among whom they find refuge, and even one another. The situation could not be otherwise, given a whole nation of merchants, as non-productive members of society (for example, the Jews in Poland). So their constitution, which is sanctioned by ancient precepts and even by the people among whom they live (since we have certain sacred writings in common with them), cannot consistently be abolished — even though the supreme principle of their morality in trading with us is "Let the buyer beware." I shall not engage in the futile undertaking of lecturing to these people, in terms of morality, about cheating and honesty. Instead, I shall present my conjectures about the origin of this peculiar constitution (the constitution, namely, of a nation of merchants).

Kant: Anthropology from a Pragmatic Point of View


9780809320608_0.jpg

Well that's interesting, but you still haven't provided any evidence to answer my actual question, "...perhaps you can provide contemporary evidence that Jewish immigrants and settlers in Palestine after WW1 were referred to as Palestinians?"

As for Kant's comment, it's also interesting he seems to differentiate between "Palestinians" and "Jews"

You question was a deflection, therefore irrelevant.
I've made my point and provided the evidence.

Why would Europeans call Jews "Palestinians among us" some 100 years before the 1st Zionist immigration to Palestine?

The Palestinians living among us have, for the most part, earned a not unfounded reputation for being cheaters, because of their spirit of usury since their exile. Certainly, it seems strange to conceive of a nation of cheaters; but it is just as odd to think of a nation of merchants, the great majority of whom, bound by an ancient superstition that is recognized by the State they live in, seek no civil dignity and try to make up for this loss by the advantage of duping the people among whom they find refuge, and even one another. The situation could not be otherwise, given a whole nation of merchants, as non-productive members of society (for example, the Jews in Poland). So their constitution, which is sanctioned by ancient precepts and even by the people among whom they live (since we have certain sacred writings in common with them), cannot consistently be abolished — even though the supreme principle of their morality in trading with us is "Let the buyer beware." I shall not engage in the futile undertaking of lecturing to these people, in terms of morality, about cheating and honesty. Instead, I shall present my conjectures about the origin of this peculiar constitution (the constitution, namely, of a nation of merchants).

Kant: Anthropology from a Pragmatic Point of View

All you've demonstrated is that Emannual Kant called Jewish Palestinians, Palestinians; not that this was widespread terminology in use in the 18th Century in Europe outside of Prussia. In the 16th and 17th Centuries the Spanish referred to Protestant Christian churches as Mosques, didn't make Protestant Christians, Muslims. My question asked you to, " provide contemporary evidence that Jewish immigrants and settlers in Palestine after WW1 were referred to as Palestinians?" This is the assertion made by the Hasbara Trolls here and elsewhere, Kant has never been mentioned until now.

Kant was talking about 'Palestinians living among us' then referred to 'Jews in Poland' as an example. Not a word about "Jewish Palestinians', just the Jews in Europe. No other references were given.
Why would anyone refer to Jews in Europe as 'Palestinians' 200 years before Arabs decided to define themselves as 'Palestinian' in reaction to Jews' self determination?

And as if I remember correctly Tinmore pointed out that Jews in Palestine were referred to as 'Palestinian citizens' as of 1924.

You see there's no way You can talk about what is a 'Palestinian' - without first referring to Jews, simple chronology.
 
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15th post
This assertion keeps cropping up time after time, but when I ask for corroborating evidence that this was in fact the case, I get no response; perhaps you can provide contemporary evidence that Jewish immigrants and settlers in Palestine after WW1 were referred to as Palestinians?

Well You can deflect to whatever You see clever.
But for some reason this is what Emmanuel Kant wrote:

The Palestinians living among us have, for the most part, earned a not unfounded reputation for being cheaters, because of their spirit of usury since their exile. Certainly, it seems strange to conceive of a nation of cheaters; but it is just as odd to think of a nation of merchants, the great majority of whom, bound by an ancient superstition that is recognized by the State they live in, seek no civil dignity and try to make up for this loss by the advantage of duping the people among whom they find refuge, and even one another. The situation could not be otherwise, given a whole nation of merchants, as non-productive members of society (for example, the Jews in Poland). So their constitution, which is sanctioned by ancient precepts and even by the people among whom they live (since we have certain sacred writings in common with them), cannot consistently be abolished — even though the supreme principle of their morality in trading with us is "Let the buyer beware." I shall not engage in the futile undertaking of lecturing to these people, in terms of morality, about cheating and honesty. Instead, I shall present my conjectures about the origin of this peculiar constitution (the constitution, namely, of a nation of merchants).

Kant: Anthropology from a Pragmatic Point of View


9780809320608_0.jpg

Well that's interesting, but you still haven't provided any evidence to answer my actual question, "...perhaps you can provide contemporary evidence that Jewish immigrants and settlers in Palestine after WW1 were referred to as Palestinians?"

As for Kant's comment, it's also interesting he seems to differentiate between "Palestinians" and "Jews"

You question was a deflection, therefore irrelevant.
I've made my point and provided the evidence.

Why would Europeans call Jews "Palestinians among us" some 100 years before the 1st Zionist immigration to Palestine?

The Palestinians living among us have, for the most part, earned a not unfounded reputation for being cheaters, because of their spirit of usury since their exile. Certainly, it seems strange to conceive of a nation of cheaters; but it is just as odd to think of a nation of merchants, the great majority of whom, bound by an ancient superstition that is recognized by the State they live in, seek no civil dignity and try to make up for this loss by the advantage of duping the people among whom they find refuge, and even one another. The situation could not be otherwise, given a whole nation of merchants, as non-productive members of society (for example, the Jews in Poland). So their constitution, which is sanctioned by ancient precepts and even by the people among whom they live (since we have certain sacred writings in common with them), cannot consistently be abolished — even though the supreme principle of their morality in trading with us is "Let the buyer beware." I shall not engage in the futile undertaking of lecturing to these people, in terms of morality, about cheating and honesty. Instead, I shall present my conjectures about the origin of this peculiar constitution (the constitution, namely, of a nation of merchants).

Kant: Anthropology from a Pragmatic Point of View

All you've demonstrated is that Emannual Kant called Jewish Palestinians, Palestinians; not that this was widespread terminology in use in the 18th Century in Europe outside of Prussia. In the 16th and 17th Centuries the Spanish referred to Protestant Christian churches as Mosques, didn't make Protestant Christians, Muslims. My question asked you to, " provide contemporary evidence that Jewish immigrants and settlers in Palestine after WW1 were referred to as Palestinians?" This is the assertion made by the Hasbara Trolls here and elsewhere, Kant has never been mentioned until now.

Kant was talking about 'Palestinians living among us' then referred to 'Jews in Poland' as an example. Not a word about "Jewish Palestinians', just the Jews in Europe. No other references were given.
Why would anyone refer to Jews in Europe as 'Palestinians' 200 years before Arabs decided to call themselves using that name?

And as if I remember correctly Tinmore pointed out that Jews in Palestine were referred to as 'Palestinian citizens' as of 1924.

You see there's no way You can talk about what is a 'Palestinian' - without first referring to Jews, simple chronology.

You make absolutely no sense. As early as 1921 the European Jews, in official communications with the British Colonial Office referred to themselves as Zionists and the Muslims and Christians, in the same exchange of communications, referred to themselves as the People of Palestine.
 
Well You can deflect to whatever You see clever.
But for some reason this is what Emmanuel Kant wrote:

The Palestinians living among us have, for the most part, earned a not unfounded reputation for being cheaters, because of their spirit of usury since their exile. Certainly, it seems strange to conceive of a nation of cheaters; but it is just as odd to think of a nation of merchants, the great majority of whom, bound by an ancient superstition that is recognized by the State they live in, seek no civil dignity and try to make up for this loss by the advantage of duping the people among whom they find refuge, and even one another. The situation could not be otherwise, given a whole nation of merchants, as non-productive members of society (for example, the Jews in Poland). So their constitution, which is sanctioned by ancient precepts and even by the people among whom they live (since we have certain sacred writings in common with them), cannot consistently be abolished — even though the supreme principle of their morality in trading with us is "Let the buyer beware." I shall not engage in the futile undertaking of lecturing to these people, in terms of morality, about cheating and honesty. Instead, I shall present my conjectures about the origin of this peculiar constitution (the constitution, namely, of a nation of merchants).

Kant: Anthropology from a Pragmatic Point of View


9780809320608_0.jpg

Well that's interesting, but you still haven't provided any evidence to answer my actual question, "...perhaps you can provide contemporary evidence that Jewish immigrants and settlers in Palestine after WW1 were referred to as Palestinians?"

As for Kant's comment, it's also interesting he seems to differentiate between "Palestinians" and "Jews"

You question was a deflection, therefore irrelevant.
I've made my point and provided the evidence.

Why would Europeans call Jews "Palestinians among us" some 100 years before the 1st Zionist immigration to Palestine?

The Palestinians living among us have, for the most part, earned a not unfounded reputation for being cheaters, because of their spirit of usury since their exile. Certainly, it seems strange to conceive of a nation of cheaters; but it is just as odd to think of a nation of merchants, the great majority of whom, bound by an ancient superstition that is recognized by the State they live in, seek no civil dignity and try to make up for this loss by the advantage of duping the people among whom they find refuge, and even one another. The situation could not be otherwise, given a whole nation of merchants, as non-productive members of society (for example, the Jews in Poland). So their constitution, which is sanctioned by ancient precepts and even by the people among whom they live (since we have certain sacred writings in common with them), cannot consistently be abolished — even though the supreme principle of their morality in trading with us is "Let the buyer beware." I shall not engage in the futile undertaking of lecturing to these people, in terms of morality, about cheating and honesty. Instead, I shall present my conjectures about the origin of this peculiar constitution (the constitution, namely, of a nation of merchants).

Kant: Anthropology from a Pragmatic Point of View

All you've demonstrated is that Emannual Kant called Jewish Palestinians, Palestinians; not that this was widespread terminology in use in the 18th Century in Europe outside of Prussia. In the 16th and 17th Centuries the Spanish referred to Protestant Christian churches as Mosques, didn't make Protestant Christians, Muslims. My question asked you to, " provide contemporary evidence that Jewish immigrants and settlers in Palestine after WW1 were referred to as Palestinians?" This is the assertion made by the Hasbara Trolls here and elsewhere, Kant has never been mentioned until now.

Kant was talking about 'Palestinians living among us' then referred to 'Jews in Poland' as an example. Not a word about "Jewish Palestinians', just the Jews in Europe. No other references were given.
Why would anyone refer to Jews in Europe as 'Palestinians' 200 years before Arabs decided to call themselves using that name?

And as if I remember correctly Tinmore pointed out that Jews in Palestine were referred to as 'Palestinian citizens' as of 1924.

You see there's no way You can talk about what is a 'Palestinian' - without first referring to Jews, simple chronology.

You make absolutely no sense. As early as 1921 the European Jews, in official communications with the British Colonial Office referred to themselves as Zionists and the Muslims and Christians, in the same exchange of communications, referred to themselves as the People of Palestine.

You really going to play the game as if history began in the 1920's?
At least 100 years before that Jews in Europe were already recognized as "Palestinians among us". But the origin of Jews was of course common knowledge- You strongly try to deny.

Edit- why can't one be a Zionist and A Palestinian Jew? Still doesn't negate the fact there were Palestinian Jews long before political Zionism.
 
Europeans, by definition, cannot be Palestinians. Europe is on a different continent. The origin of the Europeans that practiced Judaism was European, not Middle Eastern.
 
Europeans, by definition, cannot be Palestinians. Europe is on a different continent. The origin of the Europeans that practiced Judaism was European, not Middle Eastern.

The question of 'origin' is very simple.
Where did Jews begin originally?

Surely they didn't appear first in Europe :)
 
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