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Wtf...the government has frozen assets of foreign nations many times. So of course it is legal and there is precedent.Does there have to be a precedent for it to be enacted?If Trump as POTUS were to freeze all Mexican assets in the US and stop all money transfers from US to Mexico, the Mexican government will do whatever he demands.
Uh-huh, and the legal precedent for what you're proposing is . . .?
Of course, there is lots of precedent. Your question indicates a lack of knowledge. The US government has frozen the assets of foreign nations many times. You might look it up to get informed.
Yes. There are laws regarding the powers of the government and the assets of private individuals and sovereign nations, therefore you most certainly DO require a legal basis and precedent for what you propose.
Let me put this another way: is what you propose legal? If so, what is your proof to that effect?
No, saying "Asking that shows you're stupid, because OF COURSE I'm right, so there!" does not fulfill this requirement.
I will not be "looking it up" to support YOUR argument. You said it, YOU prove it, or by not doing so you will admit that you were talking out of your ass. Your choice. I'm not doing your homework for you.