Meriweather
Not all who wander are lost
- Oct 21, 2014
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She testified God was her savior.Again, why did she need a savior? She was sinless, remember?
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She testified God was her savior.Again, why did she need a savior? She was sinless, remember?
You’re the one claiming she would be destroyed in the literal presence of God, even though she carried Him in her womb.Second, as I have repeatedly said, if Mary had no original sin, AND she did not sin her entire life, tell me why she could not walk directly into God's presence without a redeemer and not be instantly destroyed.
Why not just a through a normal man via the Holy Spirit?
The scriptures are not for private interpretations. In other words, you should be open to interpretations as to not be caviar in your fear of God missing out on all our Father in Heaven has said we will inherit. And, that he has many mansions in heaven as well. Paul saw the highest of these mansions, the Celestial glory as stated in 1Corinthians about the different levels of glory or mansions in heaven. Do you know what the benefits are of each level of mansions are? No, you do not. Which means, the scholars you refer your understanding and interpretations to does not mean your understanding is 100% correct. In fact, it could be 50% or 0% as well. As with the rest of scripture. And, since Jesus himself told the apostles more than once not to write down everything he taught them as well. And, he said all the things he had to teach them could not be contained in all the books of the world. So, for you to be so finite in your belief and understanding is much like the person who fears too much and is unyielding to the spirit and the Lord to teach you more. Not so with members of the Church whose testimonies are valiant and steadfast like mine.I am presenting the original meanings. Notice the small 'g'. Consider God himself saying, "I am God, there is no other." (Capital G.) Besides 'judges' use of the small 'g' in the Bible can also mean 'mighty ones' (those in power). Notice, that who God is speaking to (the council of humans) He tells these gods/mighty ones, "like any other human, you will die; like any other prince, you shall fail."
The psalmist then concludes with this prayer/plea: "Arise O God, judge the earth, for yours are all the nations."
The psalm you reference clearly presents all of this, which is why the people of that time and culture did not begin teaching humans will all become God in the afterlife. Also, while Mormons stop at verse 6 and claim they are "in training", the rest of us read on where it promises, "Like any other, you will die; like any other, you shall fail."
Go to Isaiah, and read once more: I am God, there is no other. Read it again. Then move on to Hosea: I am God; I am not human.
Also, keep in mind you are the one with "talking points", weaving your own view of who you are by picking and chewing bits in the Bible, creating your own definition of Biblical words to suit yourself, and steadfastly ignoring what God said about Himself: "I am one. There is no other. I am one. There is no other. I am God; I am not human."
No, I’m talking about Jesus. Why not just take a normal man with the Holy Spirit then?Don't you mean a normal woman?
Does that include Jesus?Also, doesn't the Bible say that all have fallen short to the glory of God? It doesn't say everyone except for Mary.
Romans 3:23.
No, I’m talking about Jesus. Why not just take a normal man with the Holy Spirit then?
Does that include Jesus?
By your reasoning a murdered fetus is sinless thus doesn’t need a savior. Except they do.
Adam and Eve walked with God without fear until what? Sin. After they sinned, they did what? They hid from God because they were afraid of him.
With that in mind, I'd look at your interpretation as very incomplete.
I wasn't interpreting. I wrote down the actual verses. Second, it was not a private interpretation but actuality overriding LDS private interpretation. If your church would admit their private interpretation by one of your prophets, it would make more sense than trying to bluster a silly pipe dream that the Bible does not support.The scriptures are not for private interpretations.
How so? God is God, He is One and He said He is not human. Mary is human, just like millions of others. The glory of all humans--let alone a single human--falls short of the glory of God.Also, doesn't the Bible say that all have fallen short to the glory of God? It doesn't say everyone except for Mary.
How so? God is God, He is One and He said He is not human.
Mary is human, just like millions of others.
Who saved Mary? God. Who saved us? Jesus, One with God.So then you admit that she wasn't sinless? After all if her blood could save us from our sins why would she allow her firstborn son to go through all of that torture? What kind of mother would do that?
He is also man.Jesus is God. So no it doesn't.
He needed to become one of us, flesh and blood.By that line of thinking why would he need to come about into our world through a virgin woman? Why not just a through a normal man via the Holy Spirit?
Right, but if she was sinless, as you maintain, she would not NEED a savior. So, again, why would she testify that God is her savior when she didn't need to be saved? I don't think you can have it both ways.She testified God was her savior.
That is the literal definition of sin. It is not a particular thought or action but falling short of God's perfection. Jesus is the only person in human history to pull that off.How so? God is God, He is One and He said He is not human. Mary is human, just like millions of others. The glory of all humans--let alone a single human--falls short of the glory of God.
Again, if she didn't sin, why does she need a savior.You are arguing with early Christians. They held the belief that Jesus was the new Adam, and Mary was the new Eve. Eve was called 'Woman'). In his Gospel, John makes a point of writing down Jesus' address of Mary as 'Woman". This is especially noticeable in the final minutes of his life. Eve was to become the mother of all. Jesus said, "Woman, behold your son." And to the disciple, he said, "Behold your mother..."
About fifteen hundred years later, Protestants threw out this belief, claiming it was just Apostolic tradition--and despite John's Gospel, claimed it wasn't in scripture. They declared Mary a sinner, despite scripture noting that Mary was filled with God's grace, and Mary's testimony that God was her savior.
Yes, I can easily conceive of someone who has sinned before in their life being filled with God's grace. I do not believe sinless perfection is necessary for God to fill someone with His grace.If you have come to your own conclusions based on Paul's verse, "All have sinned", dismissing as unimportant that "All" would mean Jesus (fully human) as well. Except...Paul was pointing out those in the past were living under the law, and that was impossible to keep. All this, he said, was now changed as people were living under God's grace. Recall, how did the angel greet/describe Mary? Answer: As filled with God's grace.
It is important because some take it much further than a theological discussion point and literally worship Mary, giving her divine status in everything but name, then teach others to do the same. It makes no difference to me if you believe she didn't sin, that's on you, but when someone takes it further and makes a believer think they have to include Mary in their salvation or literally depend on her for things that can only come from God, there's a problem.Protestants dismissed all of this, and absolutely insist Mary sinned. They who claim "scripture alone" have no scripture of Mary's sins. Paul's statement that followed that under the law, all sinned, but now we are under grace carries no weight--especially not when it comes to Mary. Personally, I think the early Christians have the better argument--which is supported by scripture. To me it is puzzling why it is so important to Protestants that Mary sinned, and why they will have nothing to do with early Christian beliefs on this matter.
Do you believe she not only filled herself with God's grace on her own, but created God's grace? Mary never considered herself anything other than human. You seem to be asserting God would NEVER FILL anyone with His grace, especially not the mother of Jesus.Right, but if she was sinless, as you maintain, she would not NEED a savior. So, again, why would she testify that God is her savior when she didn't need to be saved? I don't think you can have it both ways.
Why would she need to be saved if she was sinless?Who saved Mary? God. Who saved us? Jesus, One with God.
You are familiar with the terms "co-redemptrix", "mediatrix", and "advocate", right? If you believe she is somehow more instrumental in salvation than you and I are, there's a problem. If you believe that she is in any way ESSENTIAL for salvation, there's a problem. If you believe she is our advocate before God when Scripture clearly names Jesus and the Holy Spirit as our advocate, there's a problem.So why do you believe Mary, a human, could save mankind from their sins? Are you forgetting only God can forgive sins? No matter how filled with grace, Mary is still human. So why are you considering she could have been Savior? Do you believe she was One with God?