Of course. They are evil therefore vote Democrat.
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I am really torn by this.
ALL Americans are entitled to vote. In fact, it's a public responsibility.
Where in the constitution does it give standards of who can vote?
The US Constitution stated in Amendment XV, which was ratified by the states in 1870:
"Section 1. The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude.
Section 2. The Congress shall have the power to enforce this article by appropriate legislation."
1870 -
US Constitution (104 KB)
15th Amendment
Citizens cannot be denied the right to vote because of race, color , or previous condition of servitude (1870)
17th Amendment
Allowed for the direct election of senators by the voters instead of their election by state legislatures (1913)
19th Amendment
Gave women the right to vote (1920)
23rd Amendment
Provides for representation of Washington, D.C. in the Electoral College (1961)
24th Amendment
Abolished the poll tax (1964)
Voting Rights Act
Allows the national government to intervene in order to ensure that state/local laws do not prevent people from voting--this includes the removal of literacy tests (1965)
26th Amendment
Lowered the voting age from 21 to 18 (1971)
Nowhere does it say anything about anybody convicted of a crime or serving a sentence in a penal facility or on parole or probation.
As much as I don't like it, if it isn't in the constitution, why do we take that right away?