Vastator
Platinum Member
- Oct 14, 2014
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Nor did the majority of felons abuse their second amendment rights, in the commission of the crime that got them convicted of a felony. If you have a succinct point; I suggest you make it. I quickly bore of partisan hackery, and quickly lose interest in those who engage in such...The exact same thing can be said for the “prohibited persons” stunt they pulled to trample a persons second amendment rights. For life. Both are bad law, and unconstitutional. And neither would have been met with approval by the founders. That’s why no such laws existed at the time of the founding.It wasn't changed when women got the right to vote which was decades later, it was changed when the Black man, newly freed slaves, got a right to vote, and it was for an evil purpose, not a position that evolved because it was for the betterment of mankind or for all of our citizens.why was it ok during the first 100 years of our Nation's existence?It’s about logic and it is not logical for a rapist or an armed robber to have the same voting rights as a tax paying citizen. Take your holier than though attitude and shove it.
Why was it okay during the founding father's time period?
Were our founders illogical or holier than thou?
Why were felons allowed to vote until after the Civil War and Black men were given the right to vote?
Me thinks it is YOU who is trying to play, holier than thou.
Because we evolved and ended slavery and allowed women to vote. That is why. Your idiocy is amusing. Must be all the cold weather in ME.
I can see how to you, it just seems normal to do this, since your whole life it has been this way....
But, I don't think it is crazy, for a State to reconsider their position on this, since we now know, the purpose of doing it, was not to punish people that have done wrong.... it is not like it is part of their sentencing for their crime committed.... it's purpose back then was to disenfranchise citizens of their vote... the black man of their newly gained vote, and now it is used to disenfranchise primarily thought to be Democratic leaning citizens, of their vote.The exact same thing can be said for the “prohibited persons”
Not really " the exact same thing".
No one abused their right to vote while commiting a crime, dope.