Shusha
Gold Member
- Dec 14, 2015
- 16,207
- 3,632
- 290
1. The native Palestinians still owned 85% of the land at the time of partition in 1947.
Privately owned land is not equivalent to sovereignty*. And the assertion that 85% of the territory in question was under private ownership of Arab "Palestinian" "natives"** is simply untrue. This is patently obvious to anyone with even a rudimentary knowledge of Ottoman land law. (Please, don't bother to post again! your foolish "facts" in the form of land surveys. They don't actually say what you think they say.)
*Obviously. A large neighborhood of primarily Italian immigrants in New York does not grant Italy sovereignty over New York.
**For example, define 'native'. Why is an Arab Christian from another country who bought land in the 1930s a "native" while a Jew returning to his homeland, from another country, who bought land in the 1930s an "invader"?