The constitution says that ALL persons are entitled to the equal protections of our laws.
The same constitution that allowed slavery.
The same Constitution that didn't address slavery one way or the other.
I guess I should have been clearer, I was referring to the US Constitution:
The Three-Fifths Compromise is found in Article 1, Section 2, Clause 3 of the
United States Constitution, which reads:
Representatives and direct Taxes shall be apportioned among the several States which may be included within this Union, according to their respective Numbers, which shall be determined by adding to the whole Number of free Persons, including those bound to Service for a Term of Years, and excluding Indians not taxed, three fifths of all other Persons.
I guess I should have been clearer. I didn't ask you to cite what you're talking about, nor did I in any way indicate that I didn't recognize the quote, so thank you for wasting time trying to pretend your "knowledge" was too advanced.
The question you're trying to dodge is "Using your dubious thinking abilities, please explain in what way slaves would have been better off had the Constitution said what you, in your limitless ignorance and naivete, believe it should have said."
See if you can produce a post that even remotely relates to what I said, rather than what you really, REALLY wish I had said. I know it forces you to answer without reference to your talking points memo, but you'll just have to deal.
You've gotten two strikes so far. Try not to get a third and prove yourself to be the utter waste of time and intelligent conversation that I strongly suspect you are.