Who Are The Palestinians?

[RoccoR]

P F Tinmore, et al,

You keep saying that, but it doesn't make it true or even relatively accurate.

You mean the 85%+ owned by the Christians and Muslims before partition?

What about it ?

Israel declared independence on land allotted to her by the partition plan, the same way the so called Palestinians did so.
If that's stealing, then why did the U.N recognize Israel and make them a full member one year later?

Israel declared independence on land allotted to her by the partition plan,...​

No it didn't.

(COMMENT)

The reference to the Partition Plan is totally evident. What change the distribution was the loss of territory after the Armistice. All things being equal, if the Arab Armies had not intervened on 15 May 1948, the Map of Israel would have looked very similar to that of Annex "A" - Plan of Partition with Economic Union. What made the difference after the Armistice with the Arab Aggressors, was the movement of the Forward Edge of the Battle Area that came to outline the general shape of the Armistice lines and areas of control.

Most Respectfully,
R

 

[Phoenall]

We're talking about how Israel declared independence.

Oh, and you can't accept that Arabs attacking Israel, with the help of Palestinian militias, was the main cause for the Palestinian getting expelled, just as they had tried to expell the Israelis. The problem with you is that you refuse to accept the truth, as we have seen many times.
You're allergic to the truth, you hate it . You call the truth 'propaganda'.
But you need to remember that even though you refuse to believe the truth, it won't make it go away. Of course, a brainwashed person like you wouldn't understand that . .
Stop lying and stop posting propaganda already, and then maybe more people will take you seriously

Who cares? The Europeans went to Palestine and evicted the people (Christians and Muslims) who lived there. That is a fact. None of your bullshit can change that fact.

They went to Palestine to create a state, as promised by the British, and were attacked by 5 Arab armies and Palestinian militias after doing so. Yet you keep ignoring this vital fact because the real truth is not part of your agenda.
Keep up the propaganda Monti !!

How could the British, a colonial power, decide to remove the local people to make room for other Europeans? How can you justify taking the land away from the people that were living there. Can't you understand how absurd your position is?

Because they were not living there, they were squatting. And back in 1923 the laws were different to those of today, and the same is 1948 when the land was handed over to the National home of the Jews

What do you mean they were not living there? The Europeans were the squatting settlers .


AN INTERIM REPORT
ON THE
CIVIL ADMINISTRATION
OF

PALESTINE,

during the period
1st JULY, 1920--30th JUNE, 1921.

AN INTERIM REPORT
ON THE
CIVIL ADMINISTRATION
OF
PALESTINE.


"There are now in the whole of Palestine hardly 700,000 people, a population much less than that of the province of Gallilee alone in the time of Christ.* (*See Sir George Adam Smith "Historical Geography of the Holy Land", Chap. 20.) Of these 235,000 live in the larger towns, 465,000 in the smaller towns and villages. Four-fifths of the whole population are Moslems. A small proportion of these are Bedouin Arabs; the remainder, although they speak Arabic and are termed Arabs, are largely of mixed race. Some 77,000 of the population are Christians, in large majority belonging to the Orthodox Church, and speaking Arabic. The minority are members of the Latin or of the Uniate Greek Catholic Church, or--a small number--are Protestants.....The Jewish element of the population numbers 76,000. Almost all have entered Palestine during the last 40 years. Prior to 1850 there were in the country only a handful of Jews.


Mandate for Palestine - Interim report of the Mandatory to the League of Nations Balfour Declaration text 30 July 1921

Try this and see who was in the majority


)
CATHOLIC ENCYCLOPEDIA Jerusalem After 1291

"...Present condition of the City: (1907 edition)

Jerusalem (El Quds) is the capital of a sanjak and the seat of a mutasarrif directly dependent on the Sublime Porte. In the administration of the sanjak the mutasarrif is assisted by a council called majlis ida ra; the city has a municipal government (majlis baladiye) presided over by a mayor. The total population is estimated at 66,000. The Turkish census of 1905, which counts only Ottoman subjects, gives these figures:
Jews, 45,000; Moslems, 8,000; Orthodox Christians, 6000; Latins, 2500; Armenians, 950; Protestants, 800; Melkites, 250; Copts, 150; Abyssinians, 100; Jacobites, 100; Catholic Syrians, 50. During the Nineteenth century large suburbs to the north and east have grown up, chiefly for the use of the Jewish colony. These suburbs contain nearly Half the present population...""

- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -

Growth of Jerusalem 1838-Present

....... Jews Muslims Christians Total
1838 6,000 5,000 3,000 14,000
1844 7,120 5,760 3,390 16,270 ..... ..The First Official Ottoman Census
1876 12,000 7,560 5,470 25,030 .... .....Second """"""""""
1905 40,000 8,000 10,900 58,900 ....... Third/last, detailed in CathEncyc above
1948 99,320 36,680 31,300 167,300
1990 353,200 124,200 14,000 491,400
1992 385,000 150,000 15,000 550,000

http://www.testimony-magazine.org/jerusalem/bring.htm


More accurate than your link to nothing

The arab muslims were illegal immigrants as shown by your own link

 

[Phoenall]

European settlers versus the local indigenous people is not a civil war. It is an invasion by Europeans. It would be like calling the Boer Zulu war of the early 1800s a civil war.

The only invasion was by the arab muslim illegal immigrants.

The Jews came from all over the world at the request of the Ottoman rulers and then the LoN rulers.

By the way the Europeans are now calling the influx of muslims an ARMED INVASION and are gearing up for civil war against the muslims.

 

[montelatici]

What does the settling of Jerusalem by European colonists have to do with the population of the whole of Palestine?

From your link:

"chiefly for the use of the Jewish colony."
http://www.testimony-magazine.org/jerusalem/bring.htm

 

[montelatici]

European settlers versus the local indigenous people is not a civil war. It is an invasion by Europeans. It would be like calling the Boer Zulu war of the early 1800s a civil war.

The only invasion was by the arab muslim illegal immigrants.

The Jews came from all over the world at the request of the Ottoman rulers and then the LoN rulers.

By the way the Europeans are now calling the influx of muslims an ARMED INVASION and are gearing up for civil war against the muslims.

Between 1920 and 1946 the only immigration legal or otherwise, of any consequence was the European immigration to Palestine, as reported by the UN.

 

[Phoenall]

What does the settling of Jerusalem by European colonists have to do with the population of the whole of Palestine?

From your link:

"chiefly for the use of the Jewish colony."
http://www.testimony-magazine.org/jerusalem/bring.htm

So where does it say European colonists then RACIST LIAR, and the European Jews did not start arriving until 1923 according to you. So where did the Jews come from in 1838 that were in the majority

 

[Phoenall]

European settlers versus the local indigenous people is not a civil war. It is an invasion by Europeans. It would be like calling the Boer Zulu war of the early 1800s a civil war.

The only invasion was by the arab muslim illegal immigrants.

The Jews came from all over the world at the request of the Ottoman rulers and then the LoN rulers.

By the way the Europeans are now calling the influx of muslims an ARMED INVASION and are gearing up for civil war against the muslims.

Between 1920 and 1946 the only immigration legal or otherwise, of any consequence was the European immigration to Palestine, as reported by the UN.

Which was shown to be wrong in your own link that you used to prove it. It showed that of 1500 illegal immigrants less than 500 where Jewish. So two thirds were arab muslim in that case and you lost the argument

You do know what means don't you RACIST LIAR that for every legal Jewish immigrant 2 illegal arab muslim immigrants entered Palestine that the British knew about.

 

[toastman]

European settlers versus the local indigenous people is not a civil war. It is an invasion by Europeans. It would be like calling the Boer Zulu war of the early 1800s a civil war.

Man you're stupid:

Google

It was mainly between the local Jews and local Arabs. You cannot change history.

 

[toastman]

What does the settling of Jerusalem by European colonists have to do with the population of the whole of Palestine?

From your link:

"chiefly for the use of the Jewish colony."
http://www.testimony-magazine.org/jerusalem/bring.htm

The European Colonists lie is Palestinian propaganda which only pathetic brainwashed inferior people like you believe.

 

[P F Tinmore]

P F Tinmore, et al,

You keep saying that, but it doesn't make it true or even relatively accurate.

You mean the 85%+ owned by the Christians and Muslims before partition?

What about it ?

Israel declared independence on land allotted to her by the partition plan, the same way the so called Palestinians did so.
If that's stealing, then why did the U.N recognize Israel and make them a full member one year later?

Israel declared independence on land allotted to her by the partition plan,...​

No it didn't.

(COMMENT)

The reference to the Partition Plan is totally evident. What change the distribution was the loss of territory after the Armistice. All things being equal, if the Arab Armies had not intervened on 15 May 1948, the Map of Israel would have looked very similar to that of Annex "A" - Plan of Partition with Economic Union. What made the difference after the Armistice with the Arab Aggressors, was the movement of the Forward Edge of the Battle Area that came to outline the general shape of the Armistice lines and areas of control.

Most Respectfully,
R

The reference to the Partition Plan is totally evident.​

That's bogus. When the foreigners declared Israel's independence inside Palestine they had already pushed deep into Arab allotted territory and was expelling Palestinians from the "international city" of Jerusalem.

Israel never had any intention of complying with anything 181. They only mentioned resolution 181 to pretend to have legitimacy.

 

[Phoenall]

P F Tinmore, et al,

You keep saying that, but it doesn't make it true or even relatively accurate.

You mean the 85%+ owned by the Christians and Muslims before partition?

What about it ?

Israel declared independence on land allotted to her by the partition plan, the same way the so called Palestinians did so.
If that's stealing, then why did the U.N recognize Israel and make them a full member one year later?

Israel declared independence on land allotted to her by the partition plan,...​

No it didn't.

(COMMENT)

The reference to the Partition Plan is totally evident. What change the distribution was the loss of territory after the Armistice. All things being equal, if the Arab Armies had not intervened on 15 May 1948, the Map of Israel would have looked very similar to that of Annex "A" - Plan of Partition with Economic Union. What made the difference after the Armistice with the Arab Aggressors, was the movement of the Forward Edge of the Battle Area that came to outline the general shape of the Armistice lines and areas of control.

Most Respectfully,
R

The reference to the Partition Plan is totally evident.​

That's bogus. When the foreigners declared Israel's independence inside Palestine they had already pushed deep into Arab allotted territory and was expelling Palestinians from the "international city" of Jerusalem.

Israel never had any intention of complying with anything 181. They only mentioned resolution 181 to pretend to have legitimacy.

And who ended up stealing Jerusalem and annexing it. Then evicting the Jews by force against the Mandate rules and the UN charter. By the way it was the arab muslims that started the violence in 1946, the Jews just responded in kind and beat them into the ground.

 

[P F Tinmore]

P F Tinmore, et al,

You keep saying that, but it doesn't make it true or even relatively accurate.

You mean the 85%+ owned by the Christians and Muslims before partition?

What about it ?

Israel declared independence on land allotted to her by the partition plan, the same way the so called Palestinians did so.
If that's stealing, then why did the U.N recognize Israel and make them a full member one year later?

Israel declared independence on land allotted to her by the partition plan,...​

No it didn't.

(COMMENT)

The reference to the Partition Plan is totally evident. What change the distribution was the loss of territory after the Armistice. All things being equal, if the Arab Armies had not intervened on 15 May 1948, the Map of Israel would have looked very similar to that of Annex "A" - Plan of Partition with Economic Union. What made the difference after the Armistice with the Arab Aggressors, was the movement of the Forward Edge of the Battle Area that came to outline the general shape of the Armistice lines and areas of control.

Most Respectfully,
R

The reference to the Partition Plan is totally evident.​

That's bogus. When the foreigners declared Israel's independence inside Palestine they had already pushed deep into Arab allotted territory and was expelling Palestinians from the "international city" of Jerusalem.

Israel never had any intention of complying with anything 181. They only mentioned resolution 181 to pretend to have legitimacy.

And who ended up stealing Jerusalem and annexing it. Then evicting the Jews by force against the Mandate rules and the UN charter. By the way it was the arab muslims that started the violence in 1946, the Jews just responded in kind and beat them into the ground.

The Zionists gave the West Bank to Jordan. So where is the beef?

 

[montelatici]

European settlers versus the local indigenous people is not a civil war. It is an invasion by Europeans. It would be like calling the Boer Zulu war of the early 1800s a civil war.

The only invasion was by the arab muslim illegal immigrants.

The Jews came from all over the world at the request of the Ottoman rulers and then the LoN rulers.

By the way the Europeans are now calling the influx of muslims an ARMED INVASION and are gearing up for civil war against the muslims.

Between 1920 and 1946 the only immigration legal or otherwise, of any consequence was the European immigration to Palestine, as reported by the UN.

Which was shown to be wrong in your own link that you used to prove it. It showed that of 1500 illegal immigrants less than 500 where Jewish. So two thirds were arab muslim in that case and you lost the argument

You do know what means don't you RACIST LIAR that for every legal Jewish immigrant 2 illegal arab muslim immigrants entered Palestine that the British knew about.

You just make things up. Here are the facts per:

A/364
3 September 1947
OFFICIAL RECORDS OF THE SECOND SESSION OF
THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY


SUPPLEMENT No. 11



UNITED NATIONS
SPECIAL COMMITTEE
ON PALESTINE



REPORT TO THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY

VOLUME 1

b)IMMIGRATION AND NATURAL INCREASE

15. These changes in the population have been brought about by two forces: natural increase and immigration. The great increase in the Jewish population is due in the main to immigration. From 1920 to 1946, the total number of recorded Jewish immigrants into Palestine was about 376,000, or an average of over 8,000 per year. The flow has not been regular, however, being fairly high in 1924 to 1926, falling in the next few years (there was a net emigration in 1927) and rising to even higher levels between 1933 and 1936 as a result of the Nazi persecution in Europe. Between the census year of 1931 and the year 1936, the proportion of Jews to the total population rose from 18 per cent to nearly 30 per cent.

16. The Arab population has increased almost entirely as a result of an excess of births over deaths.

A 364 of 3 September 1947

 

[montelatici]

P F Tinmore, et al,

You keep saying that, but it doesn't make it true or even relatively accurate.

You mean the 85%+ owned by the Christians and Muslims before partition?

What about it ?

Israel declared independence on land allotted to her by the partition plan, the same way the so called Palestinians did so.
If that's stealing, then why did the U.N recognize Israel and make them a full member one year later?

Israel declared independence on land allotted to her by the partition plan,...​

No it didn't.

(COMMENT)

The reference to the Partition Plan is totally evident. What change the distribution was the loss of territory after the Armistice. All things being equal, if the Arab Armies had not intervened on 15 May 1948, the Map of Israel would have looked very similar to that of Annex "A" - Plan of Partition with Economic Union. What made the difference after the Armistice with the Arab Aggressors, was the movement of the Forward Edge of the Battle Area that came to outline the general shape of the Armistice lines and areas of control.

Most Respectfully,
R

The reference to the Partition Plan is totally evident.​

That's bogus. When the foreigners declared Israel's independence inside Palestine they had already pushed deep into Arab allotted territory and was expelling Palestinians from the "international city" of Jerusalem.

Israel never had any intention of complying with anything 181. They only mentioned resolution 181 to pretend to have legitimacy.

And who ended up stealing Jerusalem and annexing it. Then evicting the Jews by force against the Mandate rules and the UN charter. By the way it was the arab muslims that started the violence in 1946, the Jews just responded in kind and beat them into the ground.

The Muslims and Christians were doing what any people being invaded by hostile colonizers. They defended themselves.

 

[Phoenall]

P F Tinmore, et al,

You keep saying that, but it doesn't make it true or even relatively accurate.

What about it ?

Israel declared independence on land allotted to her by the partition plan, the same way the so called Palestinians did so.
If that's stealing, then why did the U.N recognize Israel and make them a full member one year later?

Israel declared independence on land allotted to her by the partition plan,...​

No it didn't.

(COMMENT)

The reference to the Partition Plan is totally evident. What change the distribution was the loss of territory after the Armistice. All things being equal, if the Arab Armies had not intervened on 15 May 1948, the Map of Israel would have looked very similar to that of Annex "A" - Plan of Partition with Economic Union. What made the difference after the Armistice with the Arab Aggressors, was the movement of the Forward Edge of the Battle Area that came to outline the general shape of the Armistice lines and areas of control.

Most Respectfully,
R

The reference to the Partition Plan is totally evident.​

That's bogus. When the foreigners declared Israel's independence inside Palestine they had already pushed deep into Arab allotted territory and was expelling Palestinians from the "international city" of Jerusalem.

Israel never had any intention of complying with anything 181. They only mentioned resolution 181 to pretend to have legitimacy.

And who ended up stealing Jerusalem and annexing it. Then evicting the Jews by force against the Mandate rules and the UN charter. By the way it was the arab muslims that started the violence in 1946, the Jews just responded in kind and beat them into the ground.

The Zionists gave the West Bank to Jordan. So where is the beef?

LINK to the treaty as verbal contracts are not worth the toilet paper they are written on.

 

[Phoenall]

European settlers versus the local indigenous people is not a civil war. It is an invasion by Europeans. It would be like calling the Boer Zulu war of the early 1800s a civil war.

The only invasion was by the arab muslim illegal immigrants.

The Jews came from all over the world at the request of the Ottoman rulers and then the LoN rulers.

By the way the Europeans are now calling the influx of muslims an ARMED INVASION and are gearing up for civil war against the muslims.

Between 1920 and 1946 the only immigration legal or otherwise, of any consequence was the European immigration to Palestine, as reported by the UN.

Which was shown to be wrong in your own link that you used to prove it. It showed that of 1500 illegal immigrants less than 500 where Jewish. So two thirds were arab muslim in that case and you lost the argument

You do know what means don't you RACIST LIAR that for every legal Jewish immigrant 2 illegal arab muslim immigrants entered Palestine that the British knew about.

You just make things up. Here are the facts per:

A/364
3 September 1947
OFFICIAL RECORDS OF THE SECOND SESSION OF
THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY


SUPPLEMENT No. 11



UNITED NATIONS
SPECIAL COMMITTEE
ON PALESTINE



REPORT TO THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY

VOLUME 1

b)IMMIGRATION AND NATURAL INCREASE

15. These changes in the population have been brought about by two forces: natural increase and immigration. The great increase in the Jewish population is due in the main to immigration. From 1920 to 1946, the total number of recorded Jewish immigrants into Palestine was about 376,000, or an average of over 8,000 per year. The flow has not been regular, however, being fairly high in 1924 to 1926, falling in the next few years (there was a net emigration in 1927) and rising to even higher levels between 1933 and 1936 as a result of the Nazi persecution in Europe. Between the census year of 1931 and the year 1936, the proportion of Jews to the total population rose from 18 per cent to nearly 30 per cent.

16. The Arab population has increased almost entirely as a result of an excess of births over deaths.

A 364 of 3 September 1947

So what about the part that deals with illegal immigration and gives numbers ?

 

[toastman]

P F Tinmore, et al,

You keep saying that, but it doesn't make it true or even relatively accurate.

You mean the 85%+ owned by the Christians and Muslims before partition?

What about it ?

Israel declared independence on land allotted to her by the partition plan, the same way the so called Palestinians did so.
If that's stealing, then why did the U.N recognize Israel and make them a full member one year later?

Israel declared independence on land allotted to her by the partition plan,...​

No it didn't.

(COMMENT)

The reference to the Partition Plan is totally evident. What change the distribution was the loss of territory after the Armistice. All things being equal, if the Arab Armies had not intervened on 15 May 1948, the Map of Israel would have looked very similar to that of Annex "A" - Plan of Partition with Economic Union. What made the difference after the Armistice with the Arab Aggressors, was the movement of the Forward Edge of the Battle Area that came to outline the general shape of the Armistice lines and areas of control.

Most Respectfully,
R

The reference to the Partition Plan is totally evident.​

That's bogus. When the foreigners declared Israel's independence inside Palestine they had already pushed deep into Arab allotted territory and was expelling Palestinians from the "international city" of Jerusalem.

Israel never had any intention of complying with anything 181. They only mentioned resolution 181 to pretend to have legitimacy.

Bunch of lies. Where is your link for all this ?

 

[Phoenall]

P F Tinmore, et al,

You keep saying that, but it doesn't make it true or even relatively accurate.

What about it ?

Israel declared independence on land allotted to her by the partition plan, the same way the so called Palestinians did so.
If that's stealing, then why did the U.N recognize Israel and make them a full member one year later?

Israel declared independence on land allotted to her by the partition plan,...​

No it didn't.

(COMMENT)

The reference to the Partition Plan is totally evident. What change the distribution was the loss of territory after the Armistice. All things being equal, if the Arab Armies had not intervened on 15 May 1948, the Map of Israel would have looked very similar to that of Annex "A" - Plan of Partition with Economic Union. What made the difference after the Armistice with the Arab Aggressors, was the movement of the Forward Edge of the Battle Area that came to outline the general shape of the Armistice lines and areas of control.

Most Respectfully,
R

The reference to the Partition Plan is totally evident.​

That's bogus. When the foreigners declared Israel's independence inside Palestine they had already pushed deep into Arab allotted territory and was expelling Palestinians from the "international city" of Jerusalem.

Israel never had any intention of complying with anything 181. They only mentioned resolution 181 to pretend to have legitimacy.

And who ended up stealing Jerusalem and annexing it. Then evicting the Jews by force against the Mandate rules and the UN charter. By the way it was the arab muslims that started the violence in 1946, the Jews just responded in kind and beat them into the ground.

The Muslims and Christians were doing what any people being invaded by hostile colonizers. They defended themselves.

The hostile colonisers were the arab muslims who are still ethnically cleansing Christians from gaza and the west bank to this day. 90% of the Christian population has vanished from Palestine in just 10 years, and the jews are not to blame.

 

[toastman]

P F Tinmore, et al,

You keep saying that, but it doesn't make it true or even relatively accurate.

What about it ?

Israel declared independence on land allotted to her by the partition plan, the same way the so called Palestinians did so.
If that's stealing, then why did the U.N recognize Israel and make them a full member one year later?

Israel declared independence on land allotted to her by the partition plan,...​

No it didn't.

(COMMENT)

The reference to the Partition Plan is totally evident. What change the distribution was the loss of territory after the Armistice. All things being equal, if the Arab Armies had not intervened on 15 May 1948, the Map of Israel would have looked very similar to that of Annex "A" - Plan of Partition with Economic Union. What made the difference after the Armistice with the Arab Aggressors, was the movement of the Forward Edge of the Battle Area that came to outline the general shape of the Armistice lines and areas of control.

Most Respectfully,
R

The reference to the Partition Plan is totally evident.​

That's bogus. When the foreigners declared Israel's independence inside Palestine they had already pushed deep into Arab allotted territory and was expelling Palestinians from the "international city" of Jerusalem.

Israel never had any intention of complying with anything 181. They only mentioned resolution 181 to pretend to have legitimacy.

And who ended up stealing Jerusalem and annexing it. Then evicting the Jews by force against the Mandate rules and the UN charter. By the way it was the arab muslims that started the violence in 1946, the Jews just responded in kind and beat them into the ground.

The Muslims and Christians were doing what any people being invaded by hostile colonizers. They defended themselves.

There was no invasion you liar. An invasion is a military offensive. Stop with your compulsive lying.

 

[RoccoR]

"P F Tinmore, et al,

There was not such intent. You are confusing the induced political outcome between 1946 and 1948 (Civil War) and the internal defense and development of the 1948-'49 War of Independence that resulted from the aggressive behaviors and subsequent attack by the Arab Powers.

P F Tinmore, et al,

You keep saying that, but it doesn't make it true or even relatively accurate.

You mean the 85%+ owned by the Christians and Muslims before partition?

What about it ?

Israel declared independence on land allotted to her by the partition plan, the same way the so called Palestinians did so.
If that's stealing, then why did the U.N recognize Israel and make them a full member one year later?

Israel declared independence on land allotted to her by the partition plan,...​

No it didn't.

(COMMENT)

The reference to the Partition Plan is totally evident. What change the distribution was the loss of territory after the Armistice. All things being equal, if the Arab Armies had not intervened on 15 May 1948, the Map of Israel would have looked very similar to that of Annex "A" - Plan of Partition with Economic Union. What made the difference after the Armistice with the Arab Aggressors, was the movement of the Forward Edge of the Battle Area that came to outline the general shape of the Armistice lines and areas of control.

Most Respectfully,
R

The reference to the Partition Plan is totally evident.​

That's bogus. When the foreigners declared Israel's independence inside Palestine they had already pushed deep into Arab allotted territory and was expelling Palestinians from the "international city" of Jerusalem.

Israel never had any intention of complying with anything 181. They only mentioned resolution 181 to pretend to have legitimacy.

(COMMENT)

Well your allegation can never really be proved, but their is evidence that the Arab Powers want to absorb the territory. One just needs to look at the territory occupied by Jordan and Israel at the time of the Armistice.

You are mixing the individual tactics and outcomes of the Civil War (Jewish versus Arab) in the Territory under the applied Mandate with internal defense (Rear Area Protection) and the contact and engagement against the aggressor forces (Jewish defensing Israel 'v' Arab Forces as external interference in the self-determination) at the forward edge of the battle.

They are two different things; both of which were ultimate failure by the Hostile Arab Forces.

Most Respectfully,
R