in context it says "there is none like you" and yet you changed it to "there is no other God". That is obvious and clear. And your statement that "arms" are finite, divine agents is silly. דִּבְּרָה תּוֹרָה כִּלְשׁוֹן בְּנֵי אָדָם
maybe you "know" that but then again, you are a polytheist. I know nothing of the sort. The Torah speaks of the gods that people believe in but which don't really exist.
no, man was made a little lower than the angels. You even quoted it as such, and then changed it in your summary. That's dishonest. The word means more than one thing but that doesn't mean that it makes sense to have it mean multiple things in one context or to flit between them for your convenience. There are no other "gods" and angels are angels. Inventing this line of "absolutely equal" is just your way of defending an untenable position. Remember, אֵין־כָּמ֖וֹךָ בָאֱלֹהִ֥ים.
it doesn't say "sar gadol" -- that's you inserting stuff. And inserting (Elohim/gods) at the end is equally dishonest. You should stop doing that.
tying together all of your dishonesty and mistakes to try and craft an argument is just compounding your problem.
actually, Rashi identifies this "him" as Metatron. Strange that you would tie this to Michael. And the "name" (in Hebrew, shem doesn't always mean a literal name. In this case, as the Rashbam explains "בשמי הוא מצוה לכם") refers to authority.
While that verse does refer to Michael, all those other equivalences you try to make are meaningless extensions of all the errors you have conjoined.
only if you misunderstand the other uses of "elohim" and claim they mean "god".
What the text ACTUALLY says is that God can assign others the role of intermediary to effect saving from a threat. No one else is a savior unless directly given that position by God. As the JPS translation has it, "None but me, GOD;
Beside Me, none can grant triumph."
שהוא כח ילוה לאדם לעשות פעל משובח ולהציל קהל חשוב מקהל רעים, והיא הגבורה המושפעת מהאל ית׳.
only if you misinterpret the passages. Which you do. Repeatedly.
No, he was to judge or be a master to phar'oh. He wasn't a god and neither was his brother.
וְאַתְּ תְּהֵי לֵהּ
לְרָב
Aharon doesn't turn into Moses' mouth but plays a role as a translator/spokesperson. "l'peh" doesn't mean "to a mouth".
"listened to him."
the text reads that the people
bowed to God and to the king, not that they worshipped. Bereisheet 33:7, were they worshipping Eisav? The same word וישתחוו is used. 42:6 did the brothers worship Joseph? Same word. No, they bowed to him. Bow doesn't mean worship. When you start with a misquote, you draw a wrong conclusion. The rest of that drivel then falls apart.
see, you go off the rails. You concede that elohim means judge but then decide that there is an equality. That's all you, not the text.
no, the judge is called elohim because the word derives from a root meaning "power" (or "strong" or "in front" depending on which source you want to use) so it includes the position of "judge". Go check Klein if you don't believe me.
No, they are not "as one". One is a proxy, a representative. If they were as one, a person could assign a shaliach to take his lashes for him. But he can't because the shaliach is not as one with him. You should studied the rules of agency to see that it isn't being "as one" in many cases
no, because they are acting as judges.
actually, that verse is saying "if you make a mistake I will fix it because ultimately, judgement belongs to me"
Check Sanhedrin 8a. In 2 Chron 19:6 you can see that the reassurance to judges is that God is "with" them in their judgement which the Radak explains as
כלומ' שתיראו ממנו כאלו הוא עמכם בדבר משפט. או פרושו: יהיה עמכם ויעזר אתכם בדבר משפט אם תיראו ממנו:
so, no, they are not functionaries of divine judgement but judges who have to have faith in God. If there is any ontological/metaphorical relationship between man and God it does not confer any identity beyond that limited role. So a king who is chosen by God to rule is not "like God" even though he performs a role in a limited context that is also a role of God. You try so hard to draw the connection into one of identity because you need to. A and B are both letters of the alphabet so there is a similarity in local roles, but you can't expand that similarity or say that A=B because of that.
No, there is no assigning of shlichut and the concept of shaliach isn't even relevant here.
No, Rashi did not use the word "judge" there. Didn't you read what I quoted?
except when you inserted the word "God" into your restatement.
"practically almost always"? Equivocate much? And in the text you quoted, the word "worshipped" isn't there so a claim bout how it is translated isn't supported by your own citation!
Tell Avraham that he worshipped people
וַיָּ֧קׇם אַבְרָהָ֛ם וַיִּשְׁתַּ֥חוּ לְעַם־הָאָ֖רֶץ לִבְנֵי־חֵֽת
when you start with a sloppy read, you end with sloppy conclusions. You should also tell Yirmiyahu that he needn't include the word וַיַּעַבְדוּם in chapters 16 and 22 because he already wrote וַיִּשְׁתַּחֲווּ.
ah, so it doesn't mean "worship" but you draw that conclusion and insert it into your understanding because it is convenient for you and invent the notion that...
except he isn't. People bow to him as many people bow to other people without worshipping them.
Can one bow before a king? Can one bow to a statue of a king? For example, if one is visiting North Korea, may one bow to the statues as shown in this picture? Note that they are not fully prostra...
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I apologize if this is a stupid question, but I was pondering it today and I hope you will find it as interesting as I do. Every Rabbinic opinion I've seen, although there are plenty I haven't of c...
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keep your shituf. It is meaningless to Jews.