RE: What if Israel Annexes the West Bank and Lets Palestinians Vote
⁜→ JoeB131, et al,
At the outset here, let's make a certain point perfectly clear:
Don't confuse territorial control, sovereignty, or the right to self-determination - with - ownership of private property. They are two different claims (entirely
!).
You might want to actually try answering a point...
The Palestinians lived in Palestine for hundreds of years. It was their land.
Then the Zionists started showing up from Europe and stole it.
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Longevity as tenants on property:
• Does not necessarily establish it as → "their Land."
• Immigration and settlement by the Jewish People does not make a prima facie case for land theft (as in: "stole it"). As the plaintiff, the Arab Palestinian has not met the requirements for presenting a
the initial view of something, accepted as true until disproven, for a case to be made.
While the Arab Palestinians have made a tremendous amount of noise on these two issue, as a serious component set to the Question of Palestine, NOT ONCE has the Arab Palestinians attempted to seek early and just settlement of their international disputes
(territorial sovereignty or personal and private property) by negotiation, inquiry, mediation, conciliation, arbitration, judicial settlement, resort to regional agencies or arrangements or other peaceful means of their choice. Even today, the Arab Palestinians have not used the Article XV of the Declaration of Principles on Interim Self-Government Arrangements
(AKA: Oslo I September 13, 1993) to resolve the disputes. In fact, the Arab Palestinians continue to this very day, to instigate roadblocks in further negotiation, as if they were operating under the notion of the 1967 Khartoum Resolution
(the main principles by which the Arab States abide, namely, no peace with Israel, no recognition of Israel, no negotiations). The reason for this is that the two issues you have here, while well known, have no substance → which would come to the public eyes of the world should some international monitor discover this in any negotiation, inquiry, mediation, conciliation, arbitration, judicial settlement.
Again, what gave the allied powers the right to give away someone else's land?
So let's be honest, this was about a land grab by the British and French, using the Zionists as proxies to extend their imperial reach.
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Well, let's answer this in the simplified order:
• (1) “Neither the British or the French authorized or directed the Zionists (or other Jewish parties) to act on their behalf in any fashion.”;
• (2) “Neither the British or the French granted authority by which the Zionists (or other Jewish parties) were place in a position of authority over the Arab Palestinian.”;
• (3) “There was no document granting the Zionists (or other Jewish parties) authority, except as authorized by the Palestine Order in Council and the Mandate for Palestine.”
In fact, in 1923, a third attempt was made to establish an institution through which the Arab population of Palestine could be brought into cooperation with the government in three distinct stages. The second stage would have been the creation of a Legislative Council. But without an Arab majority in participation, this proved to be impossible. No matter how many time the Arab Palestinians were invited to participate in government, the offers were categorically rejected by the Arab Higher Committee (Arab Palestinians). From 1922 until the termination of the Mandate, the High Commissioner governed Palestine with the aid of Councils consisting exclusively of British officials. There was NO PROXY.
Here's the problem with that argument. One of the Fourteen Points the Allies agreed to was "Self-Determination" of nations after the war. Meaning that they were to encourage the national aspirations of Czechs, Poles, etc. in forming their own nations. In short, if the Allies were standing up for their own principles - or at least principles they adopted to rationalize the war after millions of people had died for nothing - then they should have recognized the rights of Arabs to self-determination.
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U.S. President Woodrow Wilson's Fourteen Points was a Statement of Principles were in the background in the formulation of the Treaty of Versailles; not the Treaty of Lausanne. However, the concept of self-determination was introduced in another form and just as applicable to the Ottoman/Turkish Theater of War as it was in the War with the Central Powers. But the idea of self-determination is a
Self-determination is NOT a "positive right" require the Allied Powers to provide the Arab Palestinians with either a good or service (political, tangible or intangible). On the other hand, self-determination is a "negative right," and only requires the Allied Powers to NOT interfere with Arab Palestinians self-determination. The problem here is, that the Arab Palestinian "right to self-determination" does NOT mean that the Arab Palestinian can come in and just take the territory under the mandate with was lawfully relinquished to the Allied Powers by Treaty.
KEY: The Arab Palestinian rights cannot be used as a justification to override Jewish rights to self-determination.
The Arab Palestinians were neither a party to the Treaty of Versailles and Treaty of Lausanne. I don't know why they keep bringing that up. The Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties clearly states:
“treaty” means an international agreement concluded between States in written form and governed by international law, whether embodied in a single instrument or in two or more related instruments and whatever its particular designation;
The Arab Palestinians did NOT have a state. The treaty was between the Allied Powers and the Ottoman Empire/Turkish Republic.
But this was yet another case of "Silly Darkies, Rights are for White People". The Czechs get self-determination... but you Arabs, or you "wogs" living in Germany Colonies in Africa, then dammit, we're taking your land and setting up our own colonies. And we certainly don't want people living in British or French Colonies to get some silly idea that THEY get self-determination.
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The British did not have any "colonies" in the Middle East.
I'm not sure what the rest of that means.
So, yes, the British STOLE Palestine, and used the Zionists as proxies to do so.
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Nonsense...
Article 16 • Treaty of Lausanne
Turkey hereby renounces all rights and title whatsoever over or respecting the territories situated outside the frontiers laid down in the present Treaty and the islands other than those over which her sovereignty is recognised by the said Treaty, the future of these territories and islands being settled or to be settled by the parties concerned.
KEY: Treaty does NOT renounces all rights and title to the Arab Palestinian; but to the parties concerned
(meaning parties to the Treaty).
Every nation in the civilized world understood what was said here. The Arab Palestinian can pretend that the Ottoman Sovereign renounced the rights and title to them, but it is simply NOT true.

Most Respectfully,
R