and I remind YOU that what the 1A says is, quote, "Congress shall make no Law..."
Now if you can show us where Congress made a Law, run with it.
That's a thoroughly dishonest argument. Clearly, in using that phrase to start the First Amendment, it was not the authors' intent to allow any other part of government to violate the rights thus affirmed. There is only one legitimate way in which any government policy would ever be enacted that might threaten the rights which the great men who wrote the Constitution deemed worthy and in need of explicit assertion therein; and that is by Congress passing a law.
What they neglected to properly anticipate and address, is the form of corruption which has taken root at all levels of government, in which policies are enacted and enforced as if they have the force of law, without going through the legislative process to enact them as legitimate laws.
To take that oversight on their part as an excuse to legitimate this corrupt usurpation of power to violate rights that they clearly intended to protect is intellectually dishonest.