Roudy
Diamond Member
- Mar 16, 2012
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You first claimed there was no Arab invasion
Link to said post? paying games again?
Then you said yes to invasion but no to forced conversion (as if there is any such thing because the main purpose of the Arab invasions and conquests WERE to spread Islam),
Except I had already mentioned persecution against Zoroastrians Buddhists and Hindus long beforehand
and then again after the Arab Islamic invasion of Iran
It is the same. You were the one who was desperately trying to discredit your own source, I was merely pointing out the poor quality of your sources. do you have Alzheimer's? The ONE source you showed contradicted itself by saying the Muslim armies forced the Sassanid soldiers to convert on the battle field
then I showed you clear persecution if not slaughter of Zoroastrians to which you said "no persecution, because persecution equals coercion", and now you're claiming that persecution isn't the same as coercion? Ha ha ha.
This part doesn't even make any sense given our discussion. of course it does, if there was persecution of Zoroastrians then there was forced conversion
Sounds to me like you're a Muslim bullshit artist who doesn't know the true history of the region that keeps embarrassing himself by making totally inaccurate claims and then having to backtrack and lie just to make Islam look like this noble religion that people willingly converted into.
Then why are you so scared of a formal debate?thats what we are doing here. Where's your source for this "willing conversion of Iranians" after the savage Arab Islamic invasion?