The Civil War (Constitutional Issues)

Although I don't really agree with your view about the legality of secession, I appreciate you actually taking the time to review the video. I've devoted a lot of time and energy into researching Civil War history, and I consider myself a pretty solid amateur authority on the Confederacy. Happy to discuss the subject with you any time.
My point remains that for there to be a violation of a law, there must first be a law established to violate. There was, nor is a law stating that secession was or is an unlawful or illegal act.
The only thing remotely related comes from the Articles of Confederation which all claim were replaced. If they were replaced then any and all mention of perpetual was replaced as well.
If the perpetual clause was carried over, then it would require its enumeration in the new CONstitution; if perpetuity was carried over without enumeration, then what other portions were carried over without enumeration that one may use at a given time to ones advantage?
Besides even all of that, if the union was still to be perpetual, then the 17th amendment to the U.S. CONstitution ended the perpetual union between the States by removing the States from the equation.
The States governments which form each State, are no longer participants in the central body of "the United States" hence there is no longer a union. The purpose of the central body was to unite the States through a collective body called a congress. Under the Articles the congress only consisted of State legislature appointed representatives, under the 1787/1789 U.S. CONstitution, the State legislatures continued to be participants in the union between themselves through a congress containing State appointed Senators as their representatives, maintaining a federal system that existed under the Articles. An addition was made in the form of a national component wherein an addition to the congress was made in the form of a House of Representatives which was made up of districts without regard to State affiliation, that body was/is made up of elected officials to represent the whole of the people, (this is the addition of the national component).
Now was a result of the 17th amendment the State governments do not appoint representatives to represent the State governments, hence the States are no longer participants as the have no representation/no part in a union between States. Now only the people as a whole and the two corporately owned political party,s have representation, as the Senators through election instead of appointment, owe their allegiance political party of their affiliation rather than a State government that appointed them and could re-call them in the event of poor representation of the government which appointed them.

I would never claim to be any kind of expert on Constitutional questions, so you won't hear me argue from a technically legal standpoint. My interests are primary military history and the political and cultural history surrounding that.
However, I can share my personal views about secession. It's a question that seems to have some renewed interest in a modern context, so that's how I'm frame the opinion.

If a group of citizens in Dog Patch, Idaho managed to gain political control over the state government, and subsequently proclaim Idaho to be a separate and sovereign nation; I would say to them: You don't get to break apart my county, you don't have my permission, because that's my country too. Just because some corrupt and self serving politicians get a bug up their asses, doesn't give them the right to tear apart a nation. They didn't build it, they stand on the shoulders of those who did.
M
Although I don't really agree with your view about the legality of secession, I appreciate you actually taking the time to review the video. I've devoted a lot of time and energy into researching Civil War history, and I consider myself a pretty solid amateur authority on the Confederacy. Happy to discuss the subject with you any time.
My point remains that for there to be a violation of a law, there must first be a law established to violate. There was, nor is a law stating that secession was or is an unlawful or illegal act.
The only thing remotely related comes from the Articles of Confederation which all claim were replaced. If they were replaced then any and all mention of perpetual was replaced as well.
If the perpetual clause was carried over, then it would require its enumeration in the new CONstitution; if perpetuity was carried over without enumeration, then what other portions were carried over without enumeration that one may use at a given time to ones advantage?
Besides even all of that, if the union was still to be perpetual, then the 17th amendment to the U.S. CONstitution ended the perpetual union between the States by removing the States from the equation.
The States governments which form each State, are no longer participants in the central body of "the United States" hence there is no longer a union. The purpose of the central body was to unite the States through a collective body called a congress. Under the Articles the congress only consisted of State legislature appointed representatives, under the 1787/1789 U.S. CONstitution, the State legislatures continued to be participants in the union between themselves through a congress containing State appointed Senators as their representatives, maintaining a federal system that existed under the Articles. An addition was made in the form of a national component wherein an addition to the congress was made in the form of a House of Representatives which was made up of districts without regard to State affiliation, that body was/is made up of elected officials to represent the whole of the people, (this is the addition of the national component).
Now was a result of the 17th amendment the State governments do not appoint representatives to represent the State governments, hence the States are no longer participants as the have no representation/no part in a union between States. Now only the people as a whole and the two corporately owned political party,s have representation, as the Senators through election instead of appointment, owe their allegiance political party of their affiliation rather than a State government that appointed them and could re-call them in the event of poor representation of the government which appointed them.

I would never claim to be any kind of expert on Constitutional questions, so you won't hear me argue from a technically legal standpoint. My interests are primary military history and the political and cultural history surrounding that.
However, I can share my personal views about secession. It's a question that seems to have some renewed interest in a modern context, so that's how I'm frame the opinion.

If a group of citizens in Dog Patch, Idaho managed to gain political control over the state government, and subsequently proclaim Idaho to be a separate and sovereign nation; I would say to them: You don't get to break apart my county, you don't have my permission, because that's my country too. Just because some corrupt and self serving politicians get a bug up their asses, doesn't give them the right to tear apart a nation. They didn't build it, they stand on the shoulders of those who did.
Here is my response to not, simply you, but many who have made a similar statement......
You are looking at the union through a distorted lens.
You statement that......
"You don't get to break apart my county, you don't have my permission, because that's my country
too"

This was before the Lincoln's war of rebellion, and the subsequient 17th amendment as a result thereof, (A UNION OF STATES) ......
As Alexander Hamilton stated in "The Federalist #32.....

"An entire consolidation of the States into one complete national sovereignty would imply an entire subordination of the parts; and whatever powers might remain in them, would be altogether dependent on the general will. "
Point being is that there was NOT suppose to be a consolidation into one complete national sovereignty, yet you view Idaho as YOURS. I never view another State as mine, I view it as a member State in a union/confederacy of States, just as one would view those States united under the United Nations Charter. A Constitution after all is a Charter, between States, it is a treaty between States, it is a compact between States.
Why do you think that another State belongs to you?
Here are a few SCOTUS opinions concerning this municipal jurisdiction that so many think that they hold over a State wherein they do not reside, as if.....
"You don't get to break apart my county, you don't have my permission, because that's my country
too"

Pollard’s Lessee v Hagan, that for the United States, (The States collectively in union) to hold municipal jurisdiction within a State that …….
“Such a power is not only repugnant to the Constitution, but it is inconsistent with the spirit and intention of the deeds of cession.”
“Then to Alabama belong the navigable waters, and soils under them, in controversy in this case, subject to the rights surrendered by the Constitution to the United States, and no compact that might be made between her and the United States could diminish or enlarge these rights.”


The United States never held municipal jurisdiction within a State once a State is formed and admitted to the union: "the soil, the shores, the waters, and land beneath the waters belong to the State respectively:"
We see here that Idaho does NOT belong to you as in.....
"You don't get to break apart my county, you don't have my permission, because that's my country
too"

Also in Harcourt v. Gaillard, 25 U.S. (12 Wheat.) 523, 526, 527 (1827), we find that the U.S. Court stated:

“There was no territory within the United States that was claimed in any other right than that of some one of the confederated states; therefore, there could be no acquisition of territory made by the United States distinct from, or independent of some one of the states.

“Each declared itself sovereign and independent, according to the limits of its territory.

“[T]he soil and sovereignty within their acknowledged limits were as much theirs at the declaration of independence as at this hour.”

Also in M’Ilvaine v. Coxe’s Lessee, 8 U.S. (4 Cranch) 209, 212 (1808), where it was held:

“This opinion is predicated upon a principle which is believed to be undeniable, that the several states which composed this Union, so far at least as regarded their municipal regulations, became entitled, from the time when they declared themselves independent, to all the rights and powers of sovereign states, and that they did not derive them from concessions made by the British king. The treaty of peace contains a recognition of their independence, not a grant of it. From hence it results, that the laws of the several state governments were the laws of sovereign states, and as such were obligatory upon the people of such state, from the time they were enacted.”

Art. I, Sec. 8, Cl. 17 of the U.S. Constitution, which read as follows:

“To exercise exclusive Legislation in all Cases whatsoever, over such District (not exceeding ten Miles square) as may, by Cession of particular States, and the Acceptance of Congress, become the Seat of the Government of the United States, and to exercise like Authority over all Places purchased by the Consent of the Legislature of the State in which the Same shall be, for the Erection of Forts, Magazines, Arsenals, dock-Yards, and other needful Buildings.”
Here we see that any jurisdiction of the States as a collective in government formation has NO JURISDICTION OUTSIDE OF THE TEN MILES SQUARE THAT IS THE DISTRICT OF COLUMBIA IS NON-EXISTENT EXCEPT WITHIN A U.S. FORT, AN ARSENAL, A U.S. GOVERNMENT BUILDING, MAGAZINE, OR DOCK YARD, THUS ANY JURISDICTION BEYOND THAT IS THAT OF EACH STATE RESPECTIVELY/INDIVIDUALLY.

What I am pointing out here is that this was intended to be a union of States, not a consolidation of them, I as a Tennessean do not own New YORK, Idaho or any other State, I cannot claim ...
"You don't get to break apart my county, you don't have my permission, because that's my country
too"

They are suppose to be separate States united, NOT CONSOLIDATED.
(1) Did the "states in rebellion" have a constitutional right to leave the Union?
The Supreme Court ruled on this after the Civil War. It said there was no secession because the Constitution did not define a right to secede.

Therefore citizens of Texas and other Confederate states were US citizens before, during and after the War between the States.

If that's true, why did the Confederate States have to be re-admitted to the Union, and re-write their State Constitutions to be re- admitted?
The Confederate States were NOT re-admitted, this was an illusion. The Confederate States were replaces....
A State by definition is "A MODE OF GOVERNMENT"
Example of how the Confederate States were replaced, therefore WERE NOT RE-ADMITTED.....
Isham (I'-sam) G. Harris, of Memphis, was elected governor of Tennessee in 1857, and again in 1859, both times by large majorities.
On February 22 upon the invasion and occupation of Tennessee Grant declared martial law
On March 12, 1862, Andrew Johnson, whom President Lincoln had appointed Military Governor of Tennessee, arrived and took over for the Union. Governor Johnson demanded that all Confederate officers and employees take an oath of allegiance tot he Union, when they refused, he arrested them for treason and appointed his own officers in their place.
Duress any unlawful threat or coercion used by person to induce another to act (or refrain from acting) in a manner he or she otherwise would not (or would). Subjecting person to improper pressure which vercomes his will and coerces him to comply with demand to which he would not yield if acting as free agent [Henry-Campbell: Black, Blacks Law Dictionary®, Sixth Edition, West Publishing Co. St. Paul Minnesota, 1990]
A convention of Unionist met in Nashville January 9, 1865, drafted amendments to the state constitution, nominated candidates for governor and the legislature, and set February 22 and March 4, 1865 for the people to ratify their actions. No Confederates or Confederate sympathizers, were allowed to vote.
According to Military Government and Martial Law [William E. Birkhimer, LL.B., Major General Staff U.S. Army, Third Edition, 1914], ". . . the adoption of a constitution during the war [was] under military orders" (page 110).
Governor Harris was a lame duck governor at the time of the invasion of Tennessee, Robert Caruthers was governor elect, hence the dejure elected governor of Tennessee, yet was NOT allowed to take office.....
William Gannaway Brownlow was elected Governor on March 4.
This election, was limited to only pro-Unionists.
It was under this appointed government/State that this NEW TENNESSEE was admitted, not the de jure Confederate State of Tennessee.
If The Confederate State of Tennessee had been re-admitted, then that would indicate that secession had been accomplished which would NOT be possible if secession was indeed illegal.
So one must answer the question....
Was the Confederate State of Tennessee "re-admitted" or replaced by another State?


New States may be admitted by the Congress into this Union; but no new States shall be formed or erected within the Jurisdiction of any other State; nor any State be formed by the Junction of two or more States, or Parts of States, without the Consent of the Legislatures of the States concerned as well as of the Congress.

I'm much more familiar with the battles of Franklin, Shiloh, Stones River and Nashville. I've actually made quite a study of the campaigns in Tennessee. That aside, my answer to your argument is: you don't own Tennessee any more than I do. In any case the proponents of secession have an extremely limited scope and circumstance to their argument, more about fine legal distinctions rather than any actual principles. If you believe secession is an absolute right based on some principle, then you should have no problem when the result is West Virginia.
The principle cannot ignore the law, While the creation of West Virginia may be based in our a Declaration of Independence, to which I agree, a law was in place in Both Constitutions that.....
New States may be admitted by the Congress into this Union; but no new States shall be formed or erected within the Jurisdiction of any other State; nor any State be formed by the Junction of two or more States, or Parts of States, without the Consent of the Legislatures of the States concerned as well as of the Congress.
Now, just as in the ratification of the 1787/1789 U.S. CONstitution, concerning Article XIII of the 1781 Constitution, the law in place must be repealed following the proper prescribed procedure before any further action can take place concerning that law.
In other words, the law must be followed, amended, or repealed to allow the principle to follow through, otherwise it becomes an act of rebellion to the law.
Again however, there was no law concerning secession, hence no law existed to be amended, or repealed.
Concerning The battles in Tennessee, my ancestors were involved, one of which fought in the 4th Tennessee cavalry in McClemores unit under Starnes and Forrest.\, which were involved in many battles, the most amazing to me was the pursuit of Streights raiders. My great great grandfather was among the 4th Tennessee escort when our President was abducted by the invaders.
This however is not my motivation or any blind dedication to the restoration cause, as the restorations end is at the restoration of a wholly federal system, of the Articles of Confederation, a true Confederacy of States as was intended by the founders.

Hardly that, the secession of West Virginia happened because, unlike other states, Virginia decided the question by having county based referendums. Had that happened in Tennessee, several eastern counties would have seceded from Tennessee.
 
My point remains that for there to be a violation of a law, there must first be a law established to violate. There was, nor is a law stating that secession was or is an unlawful or illegal act.
The only thing remotely related comes from the Articles of Confederation which all claim were replaced. If they were replaced then any and all mention of perpetual was replaced as well.
If the perpetual clause was carried over, then it would require its enumeration in the new CONstitution; if perpetuity was carried over without enumeration, then what other portions were carried over without enumeration that one may use at a given time to ones advantage?
Besides even all of that, if the union was still to be perpetual, then the 17th amendment to the U.S. CONstitution ended the perpetual union between the States by removing the States from the equation.
The States governments which form each State, are no longer participants in the central body of "the United States" hence there is no longer a union. The purpose of the central body was to unite the States through a collective body called a congress. Under the Articles the congress only consisted of State legislature appointed representatives, under the 1787/1789 U.S. CONstitution, the State legislatures continued to be participants in the union between themselves through a congress containing State appointed Senators as their representatives, maintaining a federal system that existed under the Articles. An addition was made in the form of a national component wherein an addition to the congress was made in the form of a House of Representatives which was made up of districts without regard to State affiliation, that body was/is made up of elected officials to represent the whole of the people, (this is the addition of the national component).
Now was a result of the 17th amendment the State governments do not appoint representatives to represent the State governments, hence the States are no longer participants as the have no representation/no part in a union between States. Now only the people as a whole and the two corporately owned political party,s have representation, as the Senators through election instead of appointment, owe their allegiance political party of their affiliation rather than a State government that appointed them and could re-call them in the event of poor representation of the government which appointed them.

I would never claim to be any kind of expert on Constitutional questions, so you won't hear me argue from a technically legal standpoint. My interests are primary military history and the political and cultural history surrounding that.
However, I can share my personal views about secession. It's a question that seems to have some renewed interest in a modern context, so that's how I'm frame the opinion.

If a group of citizens in Dog Patch, Idaho managed to gain political control over the state government, and subsequently proclaim Idaho to be a separate and sovereign nation; I would say to them: You don't get to break apart my county, you don't have my permission, because that's my country too. Just because some corrupt and self serving politicians get a bug up their asses, doesn't give them the right to tear apart a nation. They didn't build it, they stand on the shoulders of those who did.
M
My point remains that for there to be a violation of a law, there must first be a law established to violate. There was, nor is a law stating that secession was or is an unlawful or illegal act.
The only thing remotely related comes from the Articles of Confederation which all claim were replaced. If they were replaced then any and all mention of perpetual was replaced as well.
If the perpetual clause was carried over, then it would require its enumeration in the new CONstitution; if perpetuity was carried over without enumeration, then what other portions were carried over without enumeration that one may use at a given time to ones advantage?
Besides even all of that, if the union was still to be perpetual, then the 17th amendment to the U.S. CONstitution ended the perpetual union between the States by removing the States from the equation.
The States governments which form each State, are no longer participants in the central body of "the United States" hence there is no longer a union. The purpose of the central body was to unite the States through a collective body called a congress. Under the Articles the congress only consisted of State legislature appointed representatives, under the 1787/1789 U.S. CONstitution, the State legislatures continued to be participants in the union between themselves through a congress containing State appointed Senators as their representatives, maintaining a federal system that existed under the Articles. An addition was made in the form of a national component wherein an addition to the congress was made in the form of a House of Representatives which was made up of districts without regard to State affiliation, that body was/is made up of elected officials to represent the whole of the people, (this is the addition of the national component).
Now was a result of the 17th amendment the State governments do not appoint representatives to represent the State governments, hence the States are no longer participants as the have no representation/no part in a union between States. Now only the people as a whole and the two corporately owned political party,s have representation, as the Senators through election instead of appointment, owe their allegiance political party of their affiliation rather than a State government that appointed them and could re-call them in the event of poor representation of the government which appointed them.

I would never claim to be any kind of expert on Constitutional questions, so you won't hear me argue from a technically legal standpoint. My interests are primary military history and the political and cultural history surrounding that.
However, I can share my personal views about secession. It's a question that seems to have some renewed interest in a modern context, so that's how I'm frame the opinion.

If a group of citizens in Dog Patch, Idaho managed to gain political control over the state government, and subsequently proclaim Idaho to be a separate and sovereign nation; I would say to them: You don't get to break apart my county, you don't have my permission, because that's my country too. Just because some corrupt and self serving politicians get a bug up their asses, doesn't give them the right to tear apart a nation. They didn't build it, they stand on the shoulders of those who did.
Here is my response to not, simply you, but many who have made a similar statement......
You are looking at the union through a distorted lens.
You statement that......
"You don't get to break apart my county, you don't have my permission, because that's my country
too"

This was before the Lincoln's war of rebellion, and the subsequient 17th amendment as a result thereof, (A UNION OF STATES) ......
As Alexander Hamilton stated in "The Federalist #32.....

"An entire consolidation of the States into one complete national sovereignty would imply an entire subordination of the parts; and whatever powers might remain in them, would be altogether dependent on the general will. "
Point being is that there was NOT suppose to be a consolidation into one complete national sovereignty, yet you view Idaho as YOURS. I never view another State as mine, I view it as a member State in a union/confederacy of States, just as one would view those States united under the United Nations Charter. A Constitution after all is a Charter, between States, it is a treaty between States, it is a compact between States.
Why do you think that another State belongs to you?
Here are a few SCOTUS opinions concerning this municipal jurisdiction that so many think that they hold over a State wherein they do not reside, as if.....
"You don't get to break apart my county, you don't have my permission, because that's my country
too"

Pollard’s Lessee v Hagan, that for the United States, (The States collectively in union) to hold municipal jurisdiction within a State that …….
“Such a power is not only repugnant to the Constitution, but it is inconsistent with the spirit and intention of the deeds of cession.”
“Then to Alabama belong the navigable waters, and soils under them, in controversy in this case, subject to the rights surrendered by the Constitution to the United States, and no compact that might be made between her and the United States could diminish or enlarge these rights.”


The United States never held municipal jurisdiction within a State once a State is formed and admitted to the union: "the soil, the shores, the waters, and land beneath the waters belong to the State respectively:"
We see here that Idaho does NOT belong to you as in.....
"You don't get to break apart my county, you don't have my permission, because that's my country
too"

Also in Harcourt v. Gaillard, 25 U.S. (12 Wheat.) 523, 526, 527 (1827), we find that the U.S. Court stated:

“There was no territory within the United States that was claimed in any other right than that of some one of the confederated states; therefore, there could be no acquisition of territory made by the United States distinct from, or independent of some one of the states.

“Each declared itself sovereign and independent, according to the limits of its territory.

“[T]he soil and sovereignty within their acknowledged limits were as much theirs at the declaration of independence as at this hour.”

Also in M’Ilvaine v. Coxe’s Lessee, 8 U.S. (4 Cranch) 209, 212 (1808), where it was held:

“This opinion is predicated upon a principle which is believed to be undeniable, that the several states which composed this Union, so far at least as regarded their municipal regulations, became entitled, from the time when they declared themselves independent, to all the rights and powers of sovereign states, and that they did not derive them from concessions made by the British king. The treaty of peace contains a recognition of their independence, not a grant of it. From hence it results, that the laws of the several state governments were the laws of sovereign states, and as such were obligatory upon the people of such state, from the time they were enacted.”

Art. I, Sec. 8, Cl. 17 of the U.S. Constitution, which read as follows:

“To exercise exclusive Legislation in all Cases whatsoever, over such District (not exceeding ten Miles square) as may, by Cession of particular States, and the Acceptance of Congress, become the Seat of the Government of the United States, and to exercise like Authority over all Places purchased by the Consent of the Legislature of the State in which the Same shall be, for the Erection of Forts, Magazines, Arsenals, dock-Yards, and other needful Buildings.”
Here we see that any jurisdiction of the States as a collective in government formation has NO JURISDICTION OUTSIDE OF THE TEN MILES SQUARE THAT IS THE DISTRICT OF COLUMBIA IS NON-EXISTENT EXCEPT WITHIN A U.S. FORT, AN ARSENAL, A U.S. GOVERNMENT BUILDING, MAGAZINE, OR DOCK YARD, THUS ANY JURISDICTION BEYOND THAT IS THAT OF EACH STATE RESPECTIVELY/INDIVIDUALLY.

What I am pointing out here is that this was intended to be a union of States, not a consolidation of them, I as a Tennessean do not own New YORK, Idaho or any other State, I cannot claim ...
"You don't get to break apart my county, you don't have my permission, because that's my country
too"

They are suppose to be separate States united, NOT CONSOLIDATED.
The Supreme Court ruled on this after the Civil War. It said there was no secession because the Constitution did not define a right to secede.

Therefore citizens of Texas and other Confederate states were US citizens before, during and after the War between the States.

If that's true, why did the Confederate States have to be re-admitted to the Union, and re-write their State Constitutions to be re- admitted?
The Confederate States were NOT re-admitted, this was an illusion. The Confederate States were replaces....
A State by definition is "A MODE OF GOVERNMENT"
Example of how the Confederate States were replaced, therefore WERE NOT RE-ADMITTED.....
Isham (I'-sam) G. Harris, of Memphis, was elected governor of Tennessee in 1857, and again in 1859, both times by large majorities.
On February 22 upon the invasion and occupation of Tennessee Grant declared martial law
On March 12, 1862, Andrew Johnson, whom President Lincoln had appointed Military Governor of Tennessee, arrived and took over for the Union. Governor Johnson demanded that all Confederate officers and employees take an oath of allegiance tot he Union, when they refused, he arrested them for treason and appointed his own officers in their place.
Duress any unlawful threat or coercion used by person to induce another to act (or refrain from acting) in a manner he or she otherwise would not (or would). Subjecting person to improper pressure which vercomes his will and coerces him to comply with demand to which he would not yield if acting as free agent [Henry-Campbell: Black, Blacks Law Dictionary®, Sixth Edition, West Publishing Co. St. Paul Minnesota, 1990]
A convention of Unionist met in Nashville January 9, 1865, drafted amendments to the state constitution, nominated candidates for governor and the legislature, and set February 22 and March 4, 1865 for the people to ratify their actions. No Confederates or Confederate sympathizers, were allowed to vote.
According to Military Government and Martial Law [William E. Birkhimer, LL.B., Major General Staff U.S. Army, Third Edition, 1914], ". . . the adoption of a constitution during the war [was] under military orders" (page 110).
Governor Harris was a lame duck governor at the time of the invasion of Tennessee, Robert Caruthers was governor elect, hence the dejure elected governor of Tennessee, yet was NOT allowed to take office.....
William Gannaway Brownlow was elected Governor on March 4.
This election, was limited to only pro-Unionists.
It was under this appointed government/State that this NEW TENNESSEE was admitted, not the de jure Confederate State of Tennessee.
If The Confederate State of Tennessee had been re-admitted, then that would indicate that secession had been accomplished which would NOT be possible if secession was indeed illegal.
So one must answer the question....
Was the Confederate State of Tennessee "re-admitted" or replaced by another State?


New States may be admitted by the Congress into this Union; but no new States shall be formed or erected within the Jurisdiction of any other State; nor any State be formed by the Junction of two or more States, or Parts of States, without the Consent of the Legislatures of the States concerned as well as of the Congress.

I'm much more familiar with the battles of Franklin, Shiloh, Stones River and Nashville. I've actually made quite a study of the campaigns in Tennessee. That aside, my answer to your argument is: you don't own Tennessee any more than I do. In any case the proponents of secession have an extremely limited scope and circumstance to their argument, more about fine legal distinctions rather than any actual principles. If you believe secession is an absolute right based on some principle, then you should have no problem when the result is West Virginia.
The principle cannot ignore the law, While the creation of West Virginia may be based in our a Declaration of Independence, to which I agree, a law was in place in Both Constitutions that.....
New States may be admitted by the Congress into this Union; but no new States shall be formed or erected within the Jurisdiction of any other State; nor any State be formed by the Junction of two or more States, or Parts of States, without the Consent of the Legislatures of the States concerned as well as of the Congress.
Now, just as in the ratification of the 1787/1789 U.S. CONstitution, concerning Article XIII of the 1781 Constitution, the law in place must be repealed following the proper prescribed procedure before any further action can take place concerning that law.
In other words, the law must be followed, amended, or repealed to allow the principle to follow through, otherwise it becomes an act of rebellion to the law.
Again however, there was no law concerning secession, hence no law existed to be amended, or repealed.
Concerning The battles in Tennessee, my ancestors were involved, one of which fought in the 4th Tennessee cavalry in McClemores unit under Starnes and Forrest.\, which were involved in many battles, the most amazing to me was the pursuit of Streights raiders. My great great grandfather was among the 4th Tennessee escort when our President was abducted by the invaders.
This however is not my motivation or any blind dedication to the restoration cause, as the restorations end is at the restoration of a wholly federal system, of the Articles of Confederation, a true Confederacy of States as was intended by the founders.

Hardly that, the secession of West Virginia happened because, unlike other states, Virginia decided the question by having county based referendums. Had that happened in Tennessee, several eastern counties would have seceded from Tennessee.
Again what was the law concerning a State being formed within the Jurisdiction of another?
New States may be admitted by the Congress into this Union; but no new States shall be formed or erected within the Jurisdiction of any other State; nor any State be formed by the Junction of two or more States, or Parts of States, without the Consent of the Legislatures of the States concerned as well as of the Congress.
Now was the law fulfilled?
Did the Confederate States Congress CONSENT to the formation of West Virginia within The State of Virginia?
Again the Constitution would require amending to allow such to occur without the consent of congress. While I may agree in principle the law is the law.
I must be honest here. I was unaware that Virginia allowed county referendum on the subject, and clearly I need to further research the issue, however the CSA Constitution is as clear as the U.S. Constitution concerning a new State being formed within the jurisdiction of another.
 
I would never claim to be any kind of expert on Constitutional questions, so you won't hear me argue from a technically legal standpoint. My interests are primary military history and the political and cultural history surrounding that.
However, I can share my personal views about secession. It's a question that seems to have some renewed interest in a modern context, so that's how I'm frame the opinion.

If a group of citizens in Dog Patch, Idaho managed to gain political control over the state government, and subsequently proclaim Idaho to be a separate and sovereign nation; I would say to them: You don't get to break apart my county, you don't have my permission, because that's my country too. Just because some corrupt and self serving politicians get a bug up their asses, doesn't give them the right to tear apart a nation. They didn't build it, they stand on the shoulders of those who did.
M
I would never claim to be any kind of expert on Constitutional questions, so you won't hear me argue from a technically legal standpoint. My interests are primary military history and the political and cultural history surrounding that.
However, I can share my personal views about secession. It's a question that seems to have some renewed interest in a modern context, so that's how I'm frame the opinion.

If a group of citizens in Dog Patch, Idaho managed to gain political control over the state government, and subsequently proclaim Idaho to be a separate and sovereign nation; I would say to them: You don't get to break apart my county, you don't have my permission, because that's my country too. Just because some corrupt and self serving politicians get a bug up their asses, doesn't give them the right to tear apart a nation. They didn't build it, they stand on the shoulders of those who did.
Here is my response to not, simply you, but many who have made a similar statement......
You are looking at the union through a distorted lens.
You statement that......
"You don't get to break apart my county, you don't have my permission, because that's my country
too"

This was before the Lincoln's war of rebellion, and the subsequient 17th amendment as a result thereof, (A UNION OF STATES) ......
As Alexander Hamilton stated in "The Federalist #32.....

"An entire consolidation of the States into one complete national sovereignty would imply an entire subordination of the parts; and whatever powers might remain in them, would be altogether dependent on the general will. "
Point being is that there was NOT suppose to be a consolidation into one complete national sovereignty, yet you view Idaho as YOURS. I never view another State as mine, I view it as a member State in a union/confederacy of States, just as one would view those States united under the United Nations Charter. A Constitution after all is a Charter, between States, it is a treaty between States, it is a compact between States.
Why do you think that another State belongs to you?
Here are a few SCOTUS opinions concerning this municipal jurisdiction that so many think that they hold over a State wherein they do not reside, as if.....
"You don't get to break apart my county, you don't have my permission, because that's my country
too"

Pollard’s Lessee v Hagan, that for the United States, (The States collectively in union) to hold municipal jurisdiction within a State that …….
“Such a power is not only repugnant to the Constitution, but it is inconsistent with the spirit and intention of the deeds of cession.”
“Then to Alabama belong the navigable waters, and soils under them, in controversy in this case, subject to the rights surrendered by the Constitution to the United States, and no compact that might be made between her and the United States could diminish or enlarge these rights.”


The United States never held municipal jurisdiction within a State once a State is formed and admitted to the union: "the soil, the shores, the waters, and land beneath the waters belong to the State respectively:"
We see here that Idaho does NOT belong to you as in.....
"You don't get to break apart my county, you don't have my permission, because that's my country
too"

Also in Harcourt v. Gaillard, 25 U.S. (12 Wheat.) 523, 526, 527 (1827), we find that the U.S. Court stated:

“There was no territory within the United States that was claimed in any other right than that of some one of the confederated states; therefore, there could be no acquisition of territory made by the United States distinct from, or independent of some one of the states.

“Each declared itself sovereign and independent, according to the limits of its territory.

“[T]he soil and sovereignty within their acknowledged limits were as much theirs at the declaration of independence as at this hour.”

Also in M’Ilvaine v. Coxe’s Lessee, 8 U.S. (4 Cranch) 209, 212 (1808), where it was held:

“This opinion is predicated upon a principle which is believed to be undeniable, that the several states which composed this Union, so far at least as regarded their municipal regulations, became entitled, from the time when they declared themselves independent, to all the rights and powers of sovereign states, and that they did not derive them from concessions made by the British king. The treaty of peace contains a recognition of their independence, not a grant of it. From hence it results, that the laws of the several state governments were the laws of sovereign states, and as such were obligatory upon the people of such state, from the time they were enacted.”

Art. I, Sec. 8, Cl. 17 of the U.S. Constitution, which read as follows:

“To exercise exclusive Legislation in all Cases whatsoever, over such District (not exceeding ten Miles square) as may, by Cession of particular States, and the Acceptance of Congress, become the Seat of the Government of the United States, and to exercise like Authority over all Places purchased by the Consent of the Legislature of the State in which the Same shall be, for the Erection of Forts, Magazines, Arsenals, dock-Yards, and other needful Buildings.”
Here we see that any jurisdiction of the States as a collective in government formation has NO JURISDICTION OUTSIDE OF THE TEN MILES SQUARE THAT IS THE DISTRICT OF COLUMBIA IS NON-EXISTENT EXCEPT WITHIN A U.S. FORT, AN ARSENAL, A U.S. GOVERNMENT BUILDING, MAGAZINE, OR DOCK YARD, THUS ANY JURISDICTION BEYOND THAT IS THAT OF EACH STATE RESPECTIVELY/INDIVIDUALLY.

What I am pointing out here is that this was intended to be a union of States, not a consolidation of them, I as a Tennessean do not own New YORK, Idaho or any other State, I cannot claim ...
"You don't get to break apart my county, you don't have my permission, because that's my country
too"

They are suppose to be separate States united, NOT CONSOLIDATED.
If that's true, why did the Confederate States have to be re-admitted to the Union, and re-write their State Constitutions to be re- admitted?
The Confederate States were NOT re-admitted, this was an illusion. The Confederate States were replaces....
A State by definition is "A MODE OF GOVERNMENT"
Example of how the Confederate States were replaced, therefore WERE NOT RE-ADMITTED.....
Isham (I'-sam) G. Harris, of Memphis, was elected governor of Tennessee in 1857, and again in 1859, both times by large majorities.
On February 22 upon the invasion and occupation of Tennessee Grant declared martial law
On March 12, 1862, Andrew Johnson, whom President Lincoln had appointed Military Governor of Tennessee, arrived and took over for the Union. Governor Johnson demanded that all Confederate officers and employees take an oath of allegiance tot he Union, when they refused, he arrested them for treason and appointed his own officers in their place.
Duress any unlawful threat or coercion used by person to induce another to act (or refrain from acting) in a manner he or she otherwise would not (or would). Subjecting person to improper pressure which vercomes his will and coerces him to comply with demand to which he would not yield if acting as free agent [Henry-Campbell: Black, Blacks Law Dictionary®, Sixth Edition, West Publishing Co. St. Paul Minnesota, 1990]
A convention of Unionist met in Nashville January 9, 1865, drafted amendments to the state constitution, nominated candidates for governor and the legislature, and set February 22 and March 4, 1865 for the people to ratify their actions. No Confederates or Confederate sympathizers, were allowed to vote.
According to Military Government and Martial Law [William E. Birkhimer, LL.B., Major General Staff U.S. Army, Third Edition, 1914], ". . . the adoption of a constitution during the war [was] under military orders" (page 110).
Governor Harris was a lame duck governor at the time of the invasion of Tennessee, Robert Caruthers was governor elect, hence the dejure elected governor of Tennessee, yet was NOT allowed to take office.....
William Gannaway Brownlow was elected Governor on March 4.
This election, was limited to only pro-Unionists.
It was under this appointed government/State that this NEW TENNESSEE was admitted, not the de jure Confederate State of Tennessee.
If The Confederate State of Tennessee had been re-admitted, then that would indicate that secession had been accomplished which would NOT be possible if secession was indeed illegal.
So one must answer the question....
Was the Confederate State of Tennessee "re-admitted" or replaced by another State?


New States may be admitted by the Congress into this Union; but no new States shall be formed or erected within the Jurisdiction of any other State; nor any State be formed by the Junction of two or more States, or Parts of States, without the Consent of the Legislatures of the States concerned as well as of the Congress.

I'm much more familiar with the battles of Franklin, Shiloh, Stones River and Nashville. I've actually made quite a study of the campaigns in Tennessee. That aside, my answer to your argument is: you don't own Tennessee any more than I do. In any case the proponents of secession have an extremely limited scope and circumstance to their argument, more about fine legal distinctions rather than any actual principles. If you believe secession is an absolute right based on some principle, then you should have no problem when the result is West Virginia.
The principle cannot ignore the law, While the creation of West Virginia may be based in our a Declaration of Independence, to which I agree, a law was in place in Both Constitutions that.....
New States may be admitted by the Congress into this Union; but no new States shall be formed or erected within the Jurisdiction of any other State; nor any State be formed by the Junction of two or more States, or Parts of States, without the Consent of the Legislatures of the States concerned as well as of the Congress.
Now, just as in the ratification of the 1787/1789 U.S. CONstitution, concerning Article XIII of the 1781 Constitution, the law in place must be repealed following the proper prescribed procedure before any further action can take place concerning that law.
In other words, the law must be followed, amended, or repealed to allow the principle to follow through, otherwise it becomes an act of rebellion to the law.
Again however, there was no law concerning secession, hence no law existed to be amended, or repealed.
Concerning The battles in Tennessee, my ancestors were involved, one of which fought in the 4th Tennessee cavalry in McClemores unit under Starnes and Forrest.\, which were involved in many battles, the most amazing to me was the pursuit of Streights raiders. My great great grandfather was among the 4th Tennessee escort when our President was abducted by the invaders.
This however is not my motivation or any blind dedication to the restoration cause, as the restorations end is at the restoration of a wholly federal system, of the Articles of Confederation, a true Confederacy of States as was intended by the founders.

Hardly that, the secession of West Virginia happened because, unlike other states, Virginia decided the question by having county based referendums. Had that happened in Tennessee, several eastern counties would have seceded from Tennessee.
Again what was the law concerning a State being formed within the Jurisdiction of another?
New States may be admitted by the Congress into this Union; but no new States shall be formed or erected within the Jurisdiction of any other State; nor any State be formed by the Junction of two or more States, or Parts of States, without the Consent of the Legislatures of the States concerned as well as of the Congress.
Now was the law fulfilled?
Did the Confederate States Congress CONSENT to the formation of West Virginia within The State of Virginia?
Again the Constitution would require amending to allow such to occur without the consent of congress. While I may agree in principle the law is the law.
I must be honest here. I was unaware that Virginia allowed county referendum on the subject, and clearly I need to further research the issue, however the CSA Constitution is as clear as the U.S. Constitution concerning a new State being formed within the jurisdiction of another.

I've noticed that many proponents of secession are very specific about the Constitution, until we get to the part where the Constitution expressly allows for secession and describes the legal mechanisms for doing so. When we get to that point in the argument it starts to become a little vague.
 
M
Here is my response to not, simply you, but many who have made a similar statement......
You are looking at the union through a distorted lens.
You statement that......
"You don't get to break apart my county, you don't have my permission, because that's my country
too"

This was before the Lincoln's war of rebellion, and the subsequient 17th amendment as a result thereof, (A UNION OF STATES) ......
As Alexander Hamilton stated in "The Federalist #32.....

"An entire consolidation of the States into one complete national sovereignty would imply an entire subordination of the parts; and whatever powers might remain in them, would be altogether dependent on the general will. "
Point being is that there was NOT suppose to be a consolidation into one complete national sovereignty, yet you view Idaho as YOURS. I never view another State as mine, I view it as a member State in a union/confederacy of States, just as one would view those States united under the United Nations Charter. A Constitution after all is a Charter, between States, it is a treaty between States, it is a compact between States.
Why do you think that another State belongs to you?
Here are a few SCOTUS opinions concerning this municipal jurisdiction that so many think that they hold over a State wherein they do not reside, as if.....
"You don't get to break apart my county, you don't have my permission, because that's my country
too"

Pollard’s Lessee v Hagan, that for the United States, (The States collectively in union) to hold municipal jurisdiction within a State that …….
“Such a power is not only repugnant to the Constitution, but it is inconsistent with the spirit and intention of the deeds of cession.”
“Then to Alabama belong the navigable waters, and soils under them, in controversy in this case, subject to the rights surrendered by the Constitution to the United States, and no compact that might be made between her and the United States could diminish or enlarge these rights.”


The United States never held municipal jurisdiction within a State once a State is formed and admitted to the union: "the soil, the shores, the waters, and land beneath the waters belong to the State respectively:"
We see here that Idaho does NOT belong to you as in.....
"You don't get to break apart my county, you don't have my permission, because that's my country
too"

Also in Harcourt v. Gaillard, 25 U.S. (12 Wheat.) 523, 526, 527 (1827), we find that the U.S. Court stated:

“There was no territory within the United States that was claimed in any other right than that of some one of the confederated states; therefore, there could be no acquisition of territory made by the United States distinct from, or independent of some one of the states.

“Each declared itself sovereign and independent, according to the limits of its territory.

“[T]he soil and sovereignty within their acknowledged limits were as much theirs at the declaration of independence as at this hour.”

Also in M’Ilvaine v. Coxe’s Lessee, 8 U.S. (4 Cranch) 209, 212 (1808), where it was held:

“This opinion is predicated upon a principle which is believed to be undeniable, that the several states which composed this Union, so far at least as regarded their municipal regulations, became entitled, from the time when they declared themselves independent, to all the rights and powers of sovereign states, and that they did not derive them from concessions made by the British king. The treaty of peace contains a recognition of their independence, not a grant of it. From hence it results, that the laws of the several state governments were the laws of sovereign states, and as such were obligatory upon the people of such state, from the time they were enacted.”

Art. I, Sec. 8, Cl. 17 of the U.S. Constitution, which read as follows:

“To exercise exclusive Legislation in all Cases whatsoever, over such District (not exceeding ten Miles square) as may, by Cession of particular States, and the Acceptance of Congress, become the Seat of the Government of the United States, and to exercise like Authority over all Places purchased by the Consent of the Legislature of the State in which the Same shall be, for the Erection of Forts, Magazines, Arsenals, dock-Yards, and other needful Buildings.”
Here we see that any jurisdiction of the States as a collective in government formation has NO JURISDICTION OUTSIDE OF THE TEN MILES SQUARE THAT IS THE DISTRICT OF COLUMBIA IS NON-EXISTENT EXCEPT WITHIN A U.S. FORT, AN ARSENAL, A U.S. GOVERNMENT BUILDING, MAGAZINE, OR DOCK YARD, THUS ANY JURISDICTION BEYOND THAT IS THAT OF EACH STATE RESPECTIVELY/INDIVIDUALLY.

What I am pointing out here is that this was intended to be a union of States, not a consolidation of them, I as a Tennessean do not own New YORK, Idaho or any other State, I cannot claim ...
"You don't get to break apart my county, you don't have my permission, because that's my country
too"

They are suppose to be separate States united, NOT CONSOLIDATED.
The Confederate States were NOT re-admitted, this was an illusion. The Confederate States were replaces....
A State by definition is "A MODE OF GOVERNMENT"
Example of how the Confederate States were replaced, therefore WERE NOT RE-ADMITTED.....
Isham (I'-sam) G. Harris, of Memphis, was elected governor of Tennessee in 1857, and again in 1859, both times by large majorities.
On February 22 upon the invasion and occupation of Tennessee Grant declared martial law
On March 12, 1862, Andrew Johnson, whom President Lincoln had appointed Military Governor of Tennessee, arrived and took over for the Union. Governor Johnson demanded that all Confederate officers and employees take an oath of allegiance tot he Union, when they refused, he arrested them for treason and appointed his own officers in their place.
Duress any unlawful threat or coercion used by person to induce another to act (or refrain from acting) in a manner he or she otherwise would not (or would). Subjecting person to improper pressure which vercomes his will and coerces him to comply with demand to which he would not yield if acting as free agent [Henry-Campbell: Black, Blacks Law Dictionary®, Sixth Edition, West Publishing Co. St. Paul Minnesota, 1990]
A convention of Unionist met in Nashville January 9, 1865, drafted amendments to the state constitution, nominated candidates for governor and the legislature, and set February 22 and March 4, 1865 for the people to ratify their actions. No Confederates or Confederate sympathizers, were allowed to vote.
According to Military Government and Martial Law [William E. Birkhimer, LL.B., Major General Staff U.S. Army, Third Edition, 1914], ". . . the adoption of a constitution during the war [was] under military orders" (page 110).
Governor Harris was a lame duck governor at the time of the invasion of Tennessee, Robert Caruthers was governor elect, hence the dejure elected governor of Tennessee, yet was NOT allowed to take office.....
William Gannaway Brownlow was elected Governor on March 4.
This election, was limited to only pro-Unionists.
It was under this appointed government/State that this NEW TENNESSEE was admitted, not the de jure Confederate State of Tennessee.
If The Confederate State of Tennessee had been re-admitted, then that would indicate that secession had been accomplished which would NOT be possible if secession was indeed illegal.
So one must answer the question....
Was the Confederate State of Tennessee "re-admitted" or replaced by another State?


New States may be admitted by the Congress into this Union; but no new States shall be formed or erected within the Jurisdiction of any other State; nor any State be formed by the Junction of two or more States, or Parts of States, without the Consent of the Legislatures of the States concerned as well as of the Congress.

I'm much more familiar with the battles of Franklin, Shiloh, Stones River and Nashville. I've actually made quite a study of the campaigns in Tennessee. That aside, my answer to your argument is: you don't own Tennessee any more than I do. In any case the proponents of secession have an extremely limited scope and circumstance to their argument, more about fine legal distinctions rather than any actual principles. If you believe secession is an absolute right based on some principle, then you should have no problem when the result is West Virginia.
The principle cannot ignore the law, While the creation of West Virginia may be based in our a Declaration of Independence, to which I agree, a law was in place in Both Constitutions that.....
New States may be admitted by the Congress into this Union; but no new States shall be formed or erected within the Jurisdiction of any other State; nor any State be formed by the Junction of two or more States, or Parts of States, without the Consent of the Legislatures of the States concerned as well as of the Congress.
Now, just as in the ratification of the 1787/1789 U.S. CONstitution, concerning Article XIII of the 1781 Constitution, the law in place must be repealed following the proper prescribed procedure before any further action can take place concerning that law.
In other words, the law must be followed, amended, or repealed to allow the principle to follow through, otherwise it becomes an act of rebellion to the law.
Again however, there was no law concerning secession, hence no law existed to be amended, or repealed.
Concerning The battles in Tennessee, my ancestors were involved, one of which fought in the 4th Tennessee cavalry in McClemores unit under Starnes and Forrest.\, which were involved in many battles, the most amazing to me was the pursuit of Streights raiders. My great great grandfather was among the 4th Tennessee escort when our President was abducted by the invaders.
This however is not my motivation or any blind dedication to the restoration cause, as the restorations end is at the restoration of a wholly federal system, of the Articles of Confederation, a true Confederacy of States as was intended by the founders.

Hardly that, the secession of West Virginia happened because, unlike other states, Virginia decided the question by having county based referendums. Had that happened in Tennessee, several eastern counties would have seceded from Tennessee.
Again what was the law concerning a State being formed within the Jurisdiction of another?
New States may be admitted by the Congress into this Union; but no new States shall be formed or erected within the Jurisdiction of any other State; nor any State be formed by the Junction of two or more States, or Parts of States, without the Consent of the Legislatures of the States concerned as well as of the Congress.
Now was the law fulfilled?
Did the Confederate States Congress CONSENT to the formation of West Virginia within The State of Virginia?
Again the Constitution would require amending to allow such to occur without the consent of congress. While I may agree in principle the law is the law.
I must be honest here. I was unaware that Virginia allowed county referendum on the subject, and clearly I need to further research the issue, however the CSA Constitution is as clear as the U.S. Constitution concerning a new State being formed within the jurisdiction of another.

I've noticed that many proponents of secession are very specific about the Constitution, until we get to the part where the Constitution expressly allows for secession and describes the legal mechanisms for doing so. When we get to that point in the argument it starts to become a little vague.

I agree, but I still think the issue could have been settled without war if the hotheads on each side had not been the most powerful groups.
Whatever, it took a horrible war and bloodbath to settle the issue of slavery. And, I see the saddest thing is one man, a representative of South Carolina refusing to sign the Constitution unless slavery was left intact caused it all:
"John Rutledge of South Carolina responded forcefully. "Religion and humanity have nothing to do with this question," he insisted. Unless regulation of the slave trade was left to the states, the southern-most states "shall not be parties to the union." A Virginia delegate, George Mason, who owned hundreds of slaves, spoke out against slavery in ringing terms. "Slavery," he said, "discourages arts and manufactures. The poor despise labor when performed by slaves." Slavery also corrupted slaveholders and threatened the country with divine punishment: "Every master of slaves is born a petty tyrant. They bring the judgment of Heaven on a country."
 
Last edited:
M
Here is my response to not, simply you, but many who have made a similar statement......
You are looking at the union through a distorted lens.
You statement that......
"You don't get to break apart my county, you don't have my permission, because that's my country
too"

This was before the Lincoln's war of rebellion, and the subsequient 17th amendment as a result thereof, (A UNION OF STATES) ......
As Alexander Hamilton stated in "The Federalist #32.....

"An entire consolidation of the States into one complete national sovereignty would imply an entire subordination of the parts; and whatever powers might remain in them, would be altogether dependent on the general will. "
Point being is that there was NOT suppose to be a consolidation into one complete national sovereignty, yet you view Idaho as YOURS. I never view another State as mine, I view it as a member State in a union/confederacy of States, just as one would view those States united under the United Nations Charter. A Constitution after all is a Charter, between States, it is a treaty between States, it is a compact between States.
Why do you think that another State belongs to you?
Here are a few SCOTUS opinions concerning this municipal jurisdiction that so many think that they hold over a State wherein they do not reside, as if.....
"You don't get to break apart my county, you don't have my permission, because that's my country
too"

Pollard’s Lessee v Hagan, that for the United States, (The States collectively in union) to hold municipal jurisdiction within a State that …….
“Such a power is not only repugnant to the Constitution, but it is inconsistent with the spirit and intention of the deeds of cession.”
“Then to Alabama belong the navigable waters, and soils under them, in controversy in this case, subject to the rights surrendered by the Constitution to the United States, and no compact that might be made between her and the United States could diminish or enlarge these rights.”


The United States never held municipal jurisdiction within a State once a State is formed and admitted to the union: "the soil, the shores, the waters, and land beneath the waters belong to the State respectively:"
We see here that Idaho does NOT belong to you as in.....
"You don't get to break apart my county, you don't have my permission, because that's my country
too"

Also in Harcourt v. Gaillard, 25 U.S. (12 Wheat.) 523, 526, 527 (1827), we find that the U.S. Court stated:

“There was no territory within the United States that was claimed in any other right than that of some one of the confederated states; therefore, there could be no acquisition of territory made by the United States distinct from, or independent of some one of the states.

“Each declared itself sovereign and independent, according to the limits of its territory.

“[T]he soil and sovereignty within their acknowledged limits were as much theirs at the declaration of independence as at this hour.”

Also in M’Ilvaine v. Coxe’s Lessee, 8 U.S. (4 Cranch) 209, 212 (1808), where it was held:

“This opinion is predicated upon a principle which is believed to be undeniable, that the several states which composed this Union, so far at least as regarded their municipal regulations, became entitled, from the time when they declared themselves independent, to all the rights and powers of sovereign states, and that they did not derive them from concessions made by the British king. The treaty of peace contains a recognition of their independence, not a grant of it. From hence it results, that the laws of the several state governments were the laws of sovereign states, and as such were obligatory upon the people of such state, from the time they were enacted.”

Art. I, Sec. 8, Cl. 17 of the U.S. Constitution, which read as follows:

“To exercise exclusive Legislation in all Cases whatsoever, over such District (not exceeding ten Miles square) as may, by Cession of particular States, and the Acceptance of Congress, become the Seat of the Government of the United States, and to exercise like Authority over all Places purchased by the Consent of the Legislature of the State in which the Same shall be, for the Erection of Forts, Magazines, Arsenals, dock-Yards, and other needful Buildings.”
Here we see that any jurisdiction of the States as a collective in government formation has NO JURISDICTION OUTSIDE OF THE TEN MILES SQUARE THAT IS THE DISTRICT OF COLUMBIA IS NON-EXISTENT EXCEPT WITHIN A U.S. FORT, AN ARSENAL, A U.S. GOVERNMENT BUILDING, MAGAZINE, OR DOCK YARD, THUS ANY JURISDICTION BEYOND THAT IS THAT OF EACH STATE RESPECTIVELY/INDIVIDUALLY.

What I am pointing out here is that this was intended to be a union of States, not a consolidation of them, I as a Tennessean do not own New YORK, Idaho or any other State, I cannot claim ...
"You don't get to break apart my county, you don't have my permission, because that's my country
too"

They are suppose to be separate States united, NOT CONSOLIDATED.
The Confederate States were NOT re-admitted, this was an illusion. The Confederate States were replaces....
A State by definition is "A MODE OF GOVERNMENT"
Example of how the Confederate States were replaced, therefore WERE NOT RE-ADMITTED.....
Isham (I'-sam) G. Harris, of Memphis, was elected governor of Tennessee in 1857, and again in 1859, both times by large majorities.
On February 22 upon the invasion and occupation of Tennessee Grant declared martial law
On March 12, 1862, Andrew Johnson, whom President Lincoln had appointed Military Governor of Tennessee, arrived and took over for the Union. Governor Johnson demanded that all Confederate officers and employees take an oath of allegiance tot he Union, when they refused, he arrested them for treason and appointed his own officers in their place.
Duress any unlawful threat or coercion used by person to induce another to act (or refrain from acting) in a manner he or she otherwise would not (or would). Subjecting person to improper pressure which vercomes his will and coerces him to comply with demand to which he would not yield if acting as free agent [Henry-Campbell: Black, Blacks Law Dictionary®, Sixth Edition, West Publishing Co. St. Paul Minnesota, 1990]
A convention of Unionist met in Nashville January 9, 1865, drafted amendments to the state constitution, nominated candidates for governor and the legislature, and set February 22 and March 4, 1865 for the people to ratify their actions. No Confederates or Confederate sympathizers, were allowed to vote.
According to Military Government and Martial Law [William E. Birkhimer, LL.B., Major General Staff U.S. Army, Third Edition, 1914], ". . . the adoption of a constitution during the war [was] under military orders" (page 110).
Governor Harris was a lame duck governor at the time of the invasion of Tennessee, Robert Caruthers was governor elect, hence the dejure elected governor of Tennessee, yet was NOT allowed to take office.....
William Gannaway Brownlow was elected Governor on March 4.
This election, was limited to only pro-Unionists.
It was under this appointed government/State that this NEW TENNESSEE was admitted, not the de jure Confederate State of Tennessee.
If The Confederate State of Tennessee had been re-admitted, then that would indicate that secession had been accomplished which would NOT be possible if secession was indeed illegal.
So one must answer the question....
Was the Confederate State of Tennessee "re-admitted" or replaced by another State?


New States may be admitted by the Congress into this Union; but no new States shall be formed or erected within the Jurisdiction of any other State; nor any State be formed by the Junction of two or more States, or Parts of States, without the Consent of the Legislatures of the States concerned as well as of the Congress.

I'm much more familiar with the battles of Franklin, Shiloh, Stones River and Nashville. I've actually made quite a study of the campaigns in Tennessee. That aside, my answer to your argument is: you don't own Tennessee any more than I do. In any case the proponents of secession have an extremely limited scope and circumstance to their argument, more about fine legal distinctions rather than any actual principles. If you believe secession is an absolute right based on some principle, then you should have no problem when the result is West Virginia.
The principle cannot ignore the law, While the creation of West Virginia may be based in our a Declaration of Independence, to which I agree, a law was in place in Both Constitutions that.....
New States may be admitted by the Congress into this Union; but no new States shall be formed or erected within the Jurisdiction of any other State; nor any State be formed by the Junction of two or more States, or Parts of States, without the Consent of the Legislatures of the States concerned as well as of the Congress.
Now, just as in the ratification of the 1787/1789 U.S. CONstitution, concerning Article XIII of the 1781 Constitution, the law in place must be repealed following the proper prescribed procedure before any further action can take place concerning that law.
In other words, the law must be followed, amended, or repealed to allow the principle to follow through, otherwise it becomes an act of rebellion to the law.
Again however, there was no law concerning secession, hence no law existed to be amended, or repealed.
Concerning The battles in Tennessee, my ancestors were involved, one of which fought in the 4th Tennessee cavalry in McClemores unit under Starnes and Forrest.\, which were involved in many battles, the most amazing to me was the pursuit of Streights raiders. My great great grandfather was among the 4th Tennessee escort when our President was abducted by the invaders.
This however is not my motivation or any blind dedication to the restoration cause, as the restorations end is at the restoration of a wholly federal system, of the Articles of Confederation, a true Confederacy of States as was intended by the founders.

Hardly that, the secession of West Virginia happened because, unlike other states, Virginia decided the question by having county based referendums. Had that happened in Tennessee, several eastern counties would have seceded from Tennessee.
Again what was the law concerning a State being formed within the Jurisdiction of another?
New States may be admitted by the Congress into this Union; but no new States shall be formed or erected within the Jurisdiction of any other State; nor any State be formed by the Junction of two or more States, or Parts of States, without the Consent of the Legislatures of the States concerned as well as of the Congress.
Now was the law fulfilled?
Did the Confederate States Congress CONSENT to the formation of West Virginia within The State of Virginia?
Again the Constitution would require amending to allow such to occur without the consent of congress. While I may agree in principle the law is the law.
I must be honest here. I was unaware that Virginia allowed county referendum on the subject, and clearly I need to further research the issue, however the CSA Constitution is as clear as the U.S. Constitution concerning a new State being formed within the jurisdiction of another.

I've noticed that many proponents of secession are very specific about the Constitution, until we get to the part where the Constitution expressly allows for secession and describes the legal mechanisms for doing so. When we get to that point in the argument it starts to become a little vague.
Well lets examine this legal method for secession.
It is called the tenth amendment, which is specific in that it states that any power not delegated to the United States, (The States in union as a collective) is reserved to each State respectively, (INDIVIDUALLY). If no law exists concerning secession, or no power was delegated to the United States, (The States in union collectively) to prevent secession, or a method in which a State may secede, then that power is reserved by each State individually. Simply in analogy, if there is no law stating how one may paint his home, then clearly the method in which he chooses to paint is left to that individual, Brush, or Spray?
The method for secession is not vague, it is non-existent, leaving the method and the power to each State individually. There is no possible way that a method for every power reserved to the States individually could ever be enumerated, therefore all power not delegated by the States are left to each individually.
 
I'm much more familiar with the battles of Franklin, Shiloh, Stones River and Nashville. I've actually made quite a study of the campaigns in Tennessee. That aside, my answer to your argument is: you don't own Tennessee any more than I do. In any case the proponents of secession have an extremely limited scope and circumstance to their argument, more about fine legal distinctions rather than any actual principles. If you believe secession is an absolute right based on some principle, then you should have no problem when the result is West Virginia.
The principle cannot ignore the law, While the creation of West Virginia may be based in our a Declaration of Independence, to which I agree, a law was in place in Both Constitutions that.....
New States may be admitted by the Congress into this Union; but no new States shall be formed or erected within the Jurisdiction of any other State; nor any State be formed by the Junction of two or more States, or Parts of States, without the Consent of the Legislatures of the States concerned as well as of the Congress.
Now, just as in the ratification of the 1787/1789 U.S. CONstitution, concerning Article XIII of the 1781 Constitution, the law in place must be repealed following the proper prescribed procedure before any further action can take place concerning that law.
In other words, the law must be followed, amended, or repealed to allow the principle to follow through, otherwise it becomes an act of rebellion to the law.
Again however, there was no law concerning secession, hence no law existed to be amended, or repealed.
Concerning The battles in Tennessee, my ancestors were involved, one of which fought in the 4th Tennessee cavalry in McClemores unit under Starnes and Forrest.\, which were involved in many battles, the most amazing to me was the pursuit of Streights raiders. My great great grandfather was among the 4th Tennessee escort when our President was abducted by the invaders.
This however is not my motivation or any blind dedication to the restoration cause, as the restorations end is at the restoration of a wholly federal system, of the Articles of Confederation, a true Confederacy of States as was intended by the founders.

Hardly that, the secession of West Virginia happened because, unlike other states, Virginia decided the question by having county based referendums. Had that happened in Tennessee, several eastern counties would have seceded from Tennessee.
Again what was the law concerning a State being formed within the Jurisdiction of another?
New States may be admitted by the Congress into this Union; but no new States shall be formed or erected within the Jurisdiction of any other State; nor any State be formed by the Junction of two or more States, or Parts of States, without the Consent of the Legislatures of the States concerned as well as of the Congress.
Now was the law fulfilled?
Did the Confederate States Congress CONSENT to the formation of West Virginia within The State of Virginia?
Again the Constitution would require amending to allow such to occur without the consent of congress. While I may agree in principle the law is the law.
I must be honest here. I was unaware that Virginia allowed county referendum on the subject, and clearly I need to further research the issue, however the CSA Constitution is as clear as the U.S. Constitution concerning a new State being formed within the jurisdiction of another.

I've noticed that many proponents of secession are very specific about the Constitution, until we get to the part where the Constitution expressly allows for secession and describes the legal mechanisms for doing so. When we get to that point in the argument it starts to become a little vague.

I agree, but I still think the issue could have been settled without war if the hotheads on each side had not been the most powerful groups.
Whatever, it took a horrible war and bloodbath to settle the issue of slavery. And, I see the saddest thing is one man, a representative of South Carolina refusing to sign the Constitution unless slavery was left intact caused it all:
"John Rutledge of South Carolina responded forcefully. "Religion and humanity have nothing to do with this question," he insisted. Unless regulation of the slave trade was left to the states, the southern-most states "shall not be parties to the union." A Virginia delegate, George Mason, who owned hundreds of slaves, spoke out against slavery in ringing terms. "Slavery," he said, "discourages arts and manufactures. The poor despise labor when performed by slaves." Slavery also corrupted slaveholders and threatened the country with divine punishment: "Every master of slaves is born a petty tyrant. They bring the judgment of Heaven on a country."
Well that is not exactly the beginning of the slavery problem. Slavery began long before then under English rule, and the legality of the issue, began when a Black man named Anthony Johnson claimed that his Black indentured servant John Casor was his slave for life. The issue was settled in English courts and John Casor was the first legal victim of Slavery in America.
It is sad that the people became dependent on it to the point that justification was made in several ways when our own declaration declared it a self evident truth that all men are created equal, which in itself is not actually true, as only one man was ever created and that was Adam, all others were born, hence born equally dependent on others for survival, until able to survive on their own.
But the mistreatment of the Black man is only part of our past mistreatment of our fellow man in America, when the issue of our 1861 Confederacy is raised it always turns to the issue of the enslavement of the Black man and completely ignores the extermination practices against our Native American Indian brothers by the U.S.
This is why the only relevant issue is the legality of secession rather than the causes, as the causes be it slavery and the others, existed long before secession occurred. We can look at the divisions today in the context of North and South, and there still is a divide that is not associated with the past secession's but rather current issues and a seemingly difference in our core beliefs.
Again, my use of the legality of secession, and the defense of our Confederate States is simply for the purpose of restoring the Articles of Confederation for the Southern States that seceded in 1860 and 1861. The legal issue is a door that was left cracked open for us to enter and follow a legal path to the restoration of the Articles using our 1861 Confederacy as a path which can lead us there,
 
I'm much more familiar with the battles of Franklin, Shiloh, Stones River and Nashville. I've actually made quite a study of the campaigns in Tennessee. That aside, my answer to your argument is: you don't own Tennessee any more than I do. In any case the proponents of secession have an extremely limited scope and circumstance to their argument, more about fine legal distinctions rather than any actual principles. If you believe secession is an absolute right based on some principle, then you should have no problem when the result is West Virginia.
The principle cannot ignore the law, While the creation of West Virginia may be based in our a Declaration of Independence, to which I agree, a law was in place in Both Constitutions that.....
New States may be admitted by the Congress into this Union; but no new States shall be formed or erected within the Jurisdiction of any other State; nor any State be formed by the Junction of two or more States, or Parts of States, without the Consent of the Legislatures of the States concerned as well as of the Congress.
Now, just as in the ratification of the 1787/1789 U.S. CONstitution, concerning Article XIII of the 1781 Constitution, the law in place must be repealed following the proper prescribed procedure before any further action can take place concerning that law.
In other words, the law must be followed, amended, or repealed to allow the principle to follow through, otherwise it becomes an act of rebellion to the law.
Again however, there was no law concerning secession, hence no law existed to be amended, or repealed.
Concerning The battles in Tennessee, my ancestors were involved, one of which fought in the 4th Tennessee cavalry in McClemores unit under Starnes and Forrest.\, which were involved in many battles, the most amazing to me was the pursuit of Streights raiders. My great great grandfather was among the 4th Tennessee escort when our President was abducted by the invaders.
This however is not my motivation or any blind dedication to the restoration cause, as the restorations end is at the restoration of a wholly federal system, of the Articles of Confederation, a true Confederacy of States as was intended by the founders.

Hardly that, the secession of West Virginia happened because, unlike other states, Virginia decided the question by having county based referendums. Had that happened in Tennessee, several eastern counties would have seceded from Tennessee.
Again what was the law concerning a State being formed within the Jurisdiction of another?
New States may be admitted by the Congress into this Union; but no new States shall be formed or erected within the Jurisdiction of any other State; nor any State be formed by the Junction of two or more States, or Parts of States, without the Consent of the Legislatures of the States concerned as well as of the Congress.
Now was the law fulfilled?
Did the Confederate States Congress CONSENT to the formation of West Virginia within The State of Virginia?
Again the Constitution would require amending to allow such to occur without the consent of congress. While I may agree in principle the law is the law.
I must be honest here. I was unaware that Virginia allowed county referendum on the subject, and clearly I need to further research the issue, however the CSA Constitution is as clear as the U.S. Constitution concerning a new State being formed within the jurisdiction of another.

I've noticed that many proponents of secession are very specific about the Constitution, until we get to the part where the Constitution expressly allows for secession and describes the legal mechanisms for doing so. When we get to that point in the argument it starts to become a little vague.
Well lets examine this legal method for secession.
It is called the tenth amendment, which is specific in that it states that any power not delegated to the United States, (The States in union as a collective) is reserved to each State respectively, (INDIVIDUALLY). If no law exists concerning secession, or no power was delegated to the United States, (The States in union collectively) to prevent secession, or a method in which a State may secede, then that power is reserved by each State individually. Simply in analogy, if there is no law stating how one may paint his home, then clearly the method in which he chooses to paint is left to that individual, Brush, or Spray?
The method for secession is not vague, it is non-existent, leaving the method and the power to each State individually. There is no possible way that a method for every power reserved to the States individually could ever be enumerated, therefore all power not delegated by the States are left to each individually.

No I don't think we do, we don't leave the power to dismember the nation up to individual states. That would just be stupid, wouldn't it. That wouldn't make any sense at all.
 
The principle cannot ignore the law, While the creation of West Virginia may be based in our a Declaration of Independence, to which I agree, a law was in place in Both Constitutions that.....
New States may be admitted by the Congress into this Union; but no new States shall be formed or erected within the Jurisdiction of any other State; nor any State be formed by the Junction of two or more States, or Parts of States, without the Consent of the Legislatures of the States concerned as well as of the Congress.
Now, just as in the ratification of the 1787/1789 U.S. CONstitution, concerning Article XIII of the 1781 Constitution, the law in place must be repealed following the proper prescribed procedure before any further action can take place concerning that law.
In other words, the law must be followed, amended, or repealed to allow the principle to follow through, otherwise it becomes an act of rebellion to the law.
Again however, there was no law concerning secession, hence no law existed to be amended, or repealed.
Concerning The battles in Tennessee, my ancestors were involved, one of which fought in the 4th Tennessee cavalry in McClemores unit under Starnes and Forrest.\, which were involved in many battles, the most amazing to me was the pursuit of Streights raiders. My great great grandfather was among the 4th Tennessee escort when our President was abducted by the invaders.
This however is not my motivation or any blind dedication to the restoration cause, as the restorations end is at the restoration of a wholly federal system, of the Articles of Confederation, a true Confederacy of States as was intended by the founders.

Hardly that, the secession of West Virginia happened because, unlike other states, Virginia decided the question by having county based referendums. Had that happened in Tennessee, several eastern counties would have seceded from Tennessee.
Again what was the law concerning a State being formed within the Jurisdiction of another?
New States may be admitted by the Congress into this Union; but no new States shall be formed or erected within the Jurisdiction of any other State; nor any State be formed by the Junction of two or more States, or Parts of States, without the Consent of the Legislatures of the States concerned as well as of the Congress.
Now was the law fulfilled?
Did the Confederate States Congress CONSENT to the formation of West Virginia within The State of Virginia?
Again the Constitution would require amending to allow such to occur without the consent of congress. While I may agree in principle the law is the law.
I must be honest here. I was unaware that Virginia allowed county referendum on the subject, and clearly I need to further research the issue, however the CSA Constitution is as clear as the U.S. Constitution concerning a new State being formed within the jurisdiction of another.

I've noticed that many proponents of secession are very specific about the Constitution, until we get to the part where the Constitution expressly allows for secession and describes the legal mechanisms for doing so. When we get to that point in the argument it starts to become a little vague.
Well lets examine this legal method for secession.
It is called the tenth amendment, which is specific in that it states that any power not delegated to the United States, (The States in union as a collective) is reserved to each State respectively, (INDIVIDUALLY). If no law exists concerning secession, or no power was delegated to the United States, (The States in union collectively) to prevent secession, or a method in which a State may secede, then that power is reserved by each State individually. Simply in analogy, if there is no law stating how one may paint his home, then clearly the method in which he chooses to paint is left to that individual, Brush, or Spray?
The method for secession is not vague, it is non-existent, leaving the method and the power to each State individually. There is no possible way that a method for every power reserved to the States individually could ever be enumerated, therefore all power not delegated by the States are left to each individually.

No I don't think we do, we don't leave the power to dismember the nation up to individual states. That would just be stupid, wouldn't it. That wouldn't make any sense at all.
Again, you are looking at it as a consolidation of the States.
It was not a consolidation, it was a union as in United States. To look at it otherwise is to equate it to the structure of the former Soviet Union, which was a union by force, hence a tyranny. The "power to dismember the union" is not up to individual States, what is up to individual States is the power as an individual State to remove itself from the union.
Under International law......
"In the case of multilateral agreements, denunciation or withdrawal generally does not affect the treaty’s continuation in force for the remaining parties.
The termination of a multilateral agreement occurs only when the treaty ceases to exist for all States parties.
In the treaty/CONstitution/charter/compact between the States, the power to withdraw from that treaty/CONstitution/charter/compact by each State individually was contained in the tenth amendment wherein each State retained all power not specifically delegated to the collective of States in union, (The United States).
A public announcement to the other parties of a treaty is important in terminating a treaty: This announcement came with public declarations by each State that exited the union.
 
The question was settled at the Constitutional Convention.
No. The question was settled by the Civil War
A question is never settled by violence or disregard of law.
Of course it is.
No, the war settled nothing. All the war did was begin 150 years of occupation and counting. Many States have been occupied by other States, some for far more years than our Southern Confederate States, and saw an end to that occupation.
Oh, a crazy talker? Welcome too usmb :cuckoo:
 
You HAVE answered my question the way I described above.

Your argument is over. No room exists, per the OP, for other pertinent questions.

Mods, please close the thread.
Good grief, JAKE, are you that over your head that you are begging the moderators to close the thread to bail you out again. How very pathetic.
just allow jake to give you some...oh never mind. He's a little rat faced tattler
The funny thing is, I asked him the question that he claims to have asked me. I never answered my own question to him. He must be on crack.
Starkey is emotionally retarded as well as intellectually bankrupt...why do you bother?
 
1) There is a distinction between the "founding fathers" and the "framers", they are not one and the same. There was a split among the "founders" the "rats" and the "anti-rats" , ratifiers and ant-ratifiers. Among the "anti-rats was Patrick Henry, who stated that the 1787 CONstitution established a government that would not last a century. He was right...

2) ...as a result of Lincoln's rebellion, the system of government that was established by the 1787/1789 U.S. CONstitution was destroyed, in fact federalism, and the union of States were destroyed.

3) Most refer to "the federal government" today as if a federal system still exists, when in fact all that remains is a national system ( a national government) not a federal government. This may be understood by reading the Federalist# 39 wherein James Madison explains the system that Lincoln destroyed using his rebellion and war on the Confederacy, which was also a war on federalism and the union, facilitating a complete consolidation into a single sovereign State.

4) As for the militia; the militia are every able bodied man. A Well regulated militia is necessary to a free State. Which States today have a well regulated militia? The National guard is not the militia. "Well regulated" meant well funded, not controlled by the central body of government.
CSAgov.org
James Everett

1) Really? Well there is a fine distinction between the founders and the framers and the ratifiers. Madison when asked, replied that one should not look to those who formed and created the Constitution for interpretations and meaning, but to look to the people who ratified the Constitution, as it was they and not the clerks who gave the Constitution it's power and legitimacy.

2)
Really? :laugh2:

from the state of South Carolina "this State in then withdrawing from the Federal Union; but in deference to the opinions and wishes of the other slaveholding States, she forbore at that time to exercise this right"

from Lincoln in 1862
"Without slavery the rebellion could never have existed; without slavery it could not continue"

before revisionist had their say, both sides admitted it was the Confederacy that was in rebellion and that is was mostly over slavery. hmm...:eusa_shifty:

3) a simple cursory engine search exposes your logic and arguments as pathetically imbecilic.

Federalism
Federalism is a system of government in which the same territory is controlled by two levels of government. Generally, an overarching national government governs issues that affect the entire country, and smaller subdivisions govern issues of local concern. Both the national government and the smaller political subdivisions have the power to make laws and both have a certain level of autonomy from each other. The United States has a federal system of governance consisting of the national or federal government, and the government of the individual states. Federalism Wex Legal Dictionary Encyclopedia LII Legal Information Institute
4) section 8: Congressional duties/role

To declare War, grant Letters of Marque and Reprisal, and make Rules concerning Captures on Land and Water;

To raise and support Armies, but no Appropriation of Money to that Use shall be for a longer Term than two Years;

To provide and maintain a Navy;

To make Rules for the Government and Regulation of the land and naval Forces;

To provide for calling forth the Militia to execute the Laws of the Union, suppress Insurrections and repel Invasions;

To provide for organizing, arming, and disciplining, the Militia, and for governing such Part of them as may be employed in the Service of the United States, reserving to the States respectively, the Appointment of the Officers, and the Authority of training the Militia according to the discipline prescribed by Congress;

To exercise exclusive Legislation in all Cases whatsoever, over such District (not exceeding ten Miles square) as may, by Cession of particular States, and the Acceptance of Congress, become the Seat of the Government of the United States, and to exercise like Authority over all Places purchased by the Consent of the Legislature of the State in which the Same shall be, for the Erection of Forts, Magazines, Arsenals, dock-Yards, and other needful Buildings;—And

To make all Laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying into Execution the foregoing Powers, and all other Powers vested by this Constitution in the Government of the United States, or in any Department or Officer thereof.

in the end you look even dumber than Jake :clap2: that is no small feat
 
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Profound statements like the one attributed to Lincoln "without slavery the rebellion never could have existed, without slavery it cannot continue" might sound great to pop-culture educated victims of union based schools but it is meaningless. Slavery existed for a hundred years before old "Honest Abe" was born and he was apparently satisfied with the status quo during his political career. The issue wasn't slavery but the expansion of slavery into the new territories. Slavery was doomed with the advent of the industrial revolution even if hot headed Southern politicians and thick headed Yankees failed to acknowledge it. If Lincoln only held out for a couple of years more by making promises or offering compromises and if cooler heads prevailed in the South the carnage would not have happened and slavery would have been voted out like it was in New Jersey scarcely 15 years before the Civil War. The problem was that Lincoln was an inept leader despite his gift of rhetoric and he and the U.S. military as well as the hot headed Rebels were profoundly ignorant of what would happen when the shit hit the fan. Both sides thought the war would be over in a month and they were sadly mistaken to the point of criminality. Even during the insanity of WW2 only monsters and savages would have entered a city, ordered the inhabitants out and set fire to it but a possibly insane Union general who thought he was "God's terrible swift sword" burned Atlanta and Lincoln (and history) praised him for it.
 
whitehall
Profound statements like the one attributed to Lincoln "without slavery the rebellion never could have existed, without slavery it cannot continue" might sound great to pop-culture educated victims of union based schools but it is meaningless. Slavery existed for a hundred years before old "Honest Abe" was born and he was apparently satisfied with the status quo during his political career. The issue wasn't slavery but the expansion of slavery into the new territories. Slavery was doomed with the advent of the industrial revolution even if hot headed Southern politicians and thick headed Yankees failed to acknowledge it.

If Lincoln only held out for a couple of years more by making promises or offering compromises and if cooler heads prevailed in the South the carnage would not have happened and slavery would have been voted out like it was in New Jersey scarcely 15 years before the Civil War. The problem was that Lincoln was an inept leader despite his gift of rhetoric and he and the U.S. military as well as the hot headed Rebels were profoundly ignorant of what would happen when the shit hit the fan. Both sides thought the war would be over in a month and they were sadly mistaken to the point of criminality. Even during the insanity of WW2 only monsters and savages would have entered a city, ordered the inhabitants out and set fire to it but a possibly insane Union general who thought he was "God's terrible swift sword" burned Atlanta and Lincoln (and history) praised him for it.

If only Lincoln had a crystal ball...the industrial revolution? If only South Carolina didn't start the ball rolling: "this State in then withdrawing from the Federal Union; but in deference to the opinions and wishes of the other slaveholding States, she forbore at that time to exercise this right"

Your attack on Lincoln is duly noted. wtf cares? Dante will not defend or engage on Lincoln. Your red herring is also duly noted
 
(1) Did the "states in rebellion" have a constitutional right to leave the Union? Why or why not? They came in voluntarily, right?

(2) What is a "proclamation" (e.g., the "Emancipation Proclamation")? Does it have the force of law within the United States? Where, in Article II does the President get this power? Why did President Lincoln not free the slaves in the Border States? Was the emancipation legal anywhere? Why was the thirteenth amendment necessary?

(3) On what legal basis did the U.S. government "take" the property of slaveholders? Were the slaveholders entitled to compensation for these freed chattel/assets (under the Fifth Amendment)? Is this what is meant when we hear of "reparations" for slavery?
peep
 
whitehall
Profound statements like the one attributed to Lincoln "without slavery the rebellion never could have existed, without slavery it cannot continue" might sound great to pop-culture educated victims of union based schools but it is meaningless. Slavery existed for a hundred years before old "Honest Abe" was born and he was apparently satisfied with the status quo during his political career. The issue wasn't slavery but the expansion of slavery into the new territories. Slavery was doomed with the advent of the industrial revolution even if hot headed Southern politicians and thick headed Yankees failed to acknowledge it.

If Lincoln only held out for a couple of years more by making promises or offering compromises and if cooler heads prevailed in the South the carnage would not have happened and slavery would have been voted out like it was in New Jersey scarcely 15 years before the Civil War. The problem was that Lincoln was an inept leader despite his gift of rhetoric and he and the U.S. military as well as the hot headed Rebels were profoundly ignorant of what would happen when the shit hit the fan. Both sides thought the war would be over in a month and they were sadly mistaken to the point of criminality. Even during the insanity of WW2 only monsters and savages would have entered a city, ordered the inhabitants out and set fire to it but a possibly insane Union general who thought he was "God's terrible swift sword" burned Atlanta and Lincoln (and history) praised him for it.

If only Lincoln had a crystal ball...the industrial revolution? If only South Carolina didn't start the ball rolling: "this State in then withdrawing from the Federal Union; but in deference to the opinions and wishes of the other slaveholding States, she forbore at that time to exercise this right"

Your attack on Lincoln is duly noted. wtf cares? Dante will not defend or engage on Lincoln. Your red herring is also duly noted
If you quote Lincoln you already engaged on Lincoln. It was his job as president to try to keep the Union together before it led to armed conflict and he failed...miserably. The Industrial Revolution was underway for a decade before the Civil War. Slavery could not exist if it wasn't for the Yankee demand for cotton and you can bet your ass that Lincoln did not want to deprive the North of either cotton or the slave labor connected to it. The flag that flew from the stern of slave ships wasn't the Confederate flag. It was the Stars and Stripes.
 
whitehall
Profound statements like the one attributed to Lincoln "without slavery the rebellion never could have existed, without slavery it cannot continue" might sound great to pop-culture educated victims of union based schools but it is meaningless. Slavery existed for a hundred years before old "Honest Abe" was born and he was apparently satisfied with the status quo during his political career. The issue wasn't slavery but the expansion of slavery into the new territories. Slavery was doomed with the advent of the industrial revolution even if hot headed Southern politicians and thick headed Yankees failed to acknowledge it.

If Lincoln only held out for a couple of years more by making promises or offering compromises and if cooler heads prevailed in the South the carnage would not have happened and slavery would have been voted out like it was in New Jersey scarcely 15 years before the Civil War. The problem was that Lincoln was an inept leader despite his gift of rhetoric and he and the U.S. military as well as the hot headed Rebels were profoundly ignorant of what would happen when the shit hit the fan. Both sides thought the war would be over in a month and they were sadly mistaken to the point of criminality. Even during the insanity of WW2 only monsters and savages would have entered a city, ordered the inhabitants out and set fire to it but a possibly insane Union general who thought he was "God's terrible swift sword" burned Atlanta and Lincoln (and history) praised him for it.

If only Lincoln had a crystal ball...the industrial revolution? If only South Carolina didn't start the ball rolling: "this State in then withdrawing from the Federal Union; but in deference to the opinions and wishes of the other slaveholding States, she forbore at that time to exercise this right"

Your attack on Lincoln is duly noted. wtf cares? Dante will not defend or engage on Lincoln. Your red herring is also duly noted
If you quote Lincoln you already engaged on Lincoln. It was his job as president to try to keep the Union together before it led to armed conflict and he failed...miserably. The Industrial Revolution was underway for a decade before the Civil War. Slavery could not exist if it wasn't for the Yankee demand for cotton and you can bet your ass that Lincoln did not want to deprive the North of either cotton or the slave labor connected to it. The flag that flew from the stern of slave ships wasn't the Confederate flag. It was the Stars and Stripes.
blah, blah, blah, blame Lincoln for South Carolina secession Okie Dokie
 
(1) Did the "states in rebellion" have a constitutional right to leave the Union? Why or why not? They came in voluntarily, right?

They did. But once they entered, they lost their unique character of sole sovereignty. Their territory became part of the greater whole, with each state becoming a voice among many. If you want to take territory from the United States, you have to get the consent of the United States at the very least.

Madison, the 'father of the constitution' claimed that the constitution had to be accepted 'en toto and forever', rejecting the idea of a right to secession.

(2) What is a "proclamation" (e.g., the "Emancipation Proclamation")? Does it have the force of law within the United States? Where, in Article II does the President get this power? Why did President Lincoln not free the slaves in the Border States? Was the emancipation legal anywhere? Why was the thirteenth amendment necessary?

The Emancipation Proclaimation was a wartime EO applying only to the slave states. In a state of rebellion, the President has much more authority than in peacetime. The amendment was to extend this to all states and outlaw the practice entirely.

(3) On what legal basis did the U.S. government "take" the property of slaveholders? Were the slaveholders entitled to compensation for these freed chattel/assets (under the Fifth Amendment)? Is this what is meant when we hear of "reparations" for slavery?

The government took no property. Taking implies that the government took ownership. It did no such thing. It eliminated ownership.

Though compensation did have historical president internationally. When Britain abolished slavery, the British government did make a one time payment to cover the costs. It was a fraction of what the slave would produce in labor. But it was something.

It might have formed the basis of a reasonable compromise. But the southern state's rebellion made it moot.
 
The Constitution prohibits States from entering treaties, alliances, or confederations [Art I. Sec.10]. Although I found no pre-Civil War decisions on this subject, the plain text seems to make the Confederacy unconstitutional so that the seceding States could not be recognized as having any legal existence. Today, its practical significance lies in the limitations which it implies upon the power of the States to deal with matters having a bearing upon international relations.


Nullification Doctrine, first expressed in Kentucky and Virginia Resolutions of 1798 declaring Alien and Sedition Acts unconstitutional, is a legal theory that the Constitution is only a compact among states to delegate limited powers to a national government to deal with national affairs but not to interfere with the political, social, or economic structure or interests of the sovereign [self-governing] states. Therefore, states can ultimately determine whether a federal law exceeds authority of the national government, declare it unconstitutional, and refuse to enforce it. Jefferson drafted the resolutions, which advocate state rights and strict construction of Constitution. Calhoun used this theory to justify the Ordinance of Nullification of federal tariff laws in SC in 1832. Jackson responded with threat to deploy federal troops to enforce the law, stating that a state’s power to invalidate a federal law is inconsistent with the existence of a Union. The Constitution forms a government, not a league of sovereign states; and to say that a state may at will secede from the Union is to say the US is not a nation. [Proclamation on Nullification]


Confederate states adopted resolutions similar to Declaration of Independence to provide official justification for secession, comparing southern secession to the American Revolution. [Declarations of Secession]. These documents cite the Constitution [Art. IV] providing for return of fugitive slave. Recognition of slavery was essential to forming’’ a more perfect union’’ for southern states. South argued that northern anti-slave movement and failure to enforce fugitive slave provision justified secession. Northern states granted freedom to fugitive slaves by law [using nullification theory as justification]; refused to enforce Fugitive Slave Act [fed military very small]; encouraged Underground Railroad.
 
Actually what I have read is that when the Southern states joined the union they also made it perfectly clear that they had the right to secede from the union. When Lincoln and company realized the economic damage this was gonna cause (icy ports for example and the ships having a hard time navigating the ports in winter) they wanted nothing more than the South back by any means necessary.
 

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