gekaap
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- Jan 25, 2011
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- Banned
- #181
No I dont think Im missing the first step, second step structure. Arizonas argument is that they are not making new law about qualifications for President. They are defining criteria whereby prospective candidates gain access to Arizonas ballots. While the qualifications for President are a Constitutional issue, the process of party candidacy selection and the process of ballot production has always been within the purview of the states except where clearly defined in the Constitution. For example a State cannot deny women the right to vote per the 19th Amendment and they cannot deny the vote to those that are at least 18 years old per the 26th Amendment.
Candidates are selected by the parties themselves, not by any given state. Arizona statute provides that "At a primary election, each political party entitled and intending to make nominations for the ensuing general or special election shall, if it desires to have the names of its candidates printed on the official ballot at such general or special election, nominate its candidates for all elective, senatorial, congressional, state, judicial, county and precinct offices to be filled at such election except as provided in section 16-344." [Section 16-344 deals with electors and is not relevant to the discussion at hand.]
For the state government to disallow a candidate would mean that they are either denying a political party their legal right to nominate a their own candidate for office, and to place him or her on the ballot (that right being established elsewhere in Arizona law). If the state were to refuse to include the candidate of a given party on the ballot based on some lack of "showing" of qualification, that would amount to the state attempting to police whether a person meets the qualifications of the office. They can do this for their own offices if they wish, but the state does not have the power to police the qualifications of a candidate for a federal office. Of course, considering all the circumstances, the legislative intent is very clear, and that matter alone would demand a high burden of proof from AZ to justify its "concerns" about Obama's citizenship. In addition to that, the proposed AZ law, regardless of whatever claimed intention, would still to fail the test of effect. Since the effect of the law would be to police the qualifications of a Presidential candidate, they would fail in any proposed explanation that they are just trying to conform to the constitution.
Arizonas position will be that they are not changing the law in an attempt to usurp the Constitution, but are implementing the requirements of the Constitution itself.
They might try that position, but the state does not have the power to "implement" the requirements of the constitutional qualifications to hold the office of POTUS. That is a matter for the Senate to deal with when tallying the votes of electors.
Birthers will be creaming in their jeans under the prospect of having a case proceed where they will have standing. See once the case is allowed to proceed, then the State of Arizona will have subpoena authority. They will be able to subpoena birth records directly from the State of Hawaii, since it would qualify as an ongoing legal action the state (under its own laws) would have to comply as it would be outside the privacy restrictions of the Hawaiian State Code.
No, the state will not have the opportunity to subpoena the birth records because that will fall under Obama's 5th amendment rights. If Obama were to bring a cause of action against the state, he would only have to show that he was the nominated person by the Democratic party, and that he is currently President, thus is recognized by the government as still meeting the qualifications for his second term. The burden would then shift to AZ to show that they have the right to deny a candidate from appearing on the ballot. In order to do that based on qualifications, they would have to not only successfully argue a right to police the qualifications of people holding federal office, but also have to provide positive evidence of Obama failing those qualifications.
Prima facia evidence is accepted as true only as long as it is not countered with evidence to the contrary. Just because you currently occupy a position, is not prima facia evidence they you are eligible to occupy the position in the future.
The only way his eligibility could change would be for him to serve a second term, or to renounce his citizenship. None of the qualification requirements have changed, so it would take a change in his personal status to create an ineligibility on Obama's part. The fact that he is the current sitting President, therefore, would suffice for the question of him being a natural born citizen. All branches of the federal government have affirmed his credentials. The legislator affirmed them by certifying the election results of the electoral college. The judiciary affirmed them at the inauguration. The executive branch affirms them by him occupying the office. Therefore, in order for AZ to be able to maintain that he is not eligible based on alleged citizenship failings, they will have to provide the positive proof to that claim.
I will bet you the argument will be made that the Secretaries of State and the Congress did not exercise due diligence in the previous election. All that would be need it a sworn statement from each State noting that they did not receive an physical copy of the birth certificate, nor did they request one directly from Hawaii, that they merely took the parties application at face value with no further investigation. Same applies to Congress, there were questions during the campaign, yet all it took was one Senator and one Representative to object to the Electoral College vote and the law would have required each house to adjourn and the objection investigated. Since no objection was raised, Congress did not follow due diligence.
This would actually be a very weak argument. First of all, there is no requirement that a candidate present a birth certificate, and it goes beyond common practice, thus all due diligence has been followed. The constitution does not demand a birth certificate. Second, Congress is not required to raise any such objection. Therefore there is no failure of due diligence. Whether such due diligence can even be applied to Congress would be a shaky question in and of itself. Most likely, the court would say, in essence, that if you don't like what your Congressman or Senator did, don't vote for them next time. But since their actions were constitutional, there is no argument for the court to entertain the state objecting to the acts of Congress.
Arizonas argument will be that it is not the creation of new law, it is the codification of existing understanding law. Neither the Constitution or Federal Law actually define Natural Born Citizen, in addition there has never been a Supreme Court case that defines Natural Born Citizen in a case specifically about Presidential eligibility.
Actually, that's not true. There has been alot of case law where the Supreme Court has addressed what it means to be a "natural born citizen." There is no issue of a special application for the term toward the Presidency. A natural born citizen is a natural born citizen, and there would be no need for the court to even bother with re-addressing the question to specifically apply it to the President. Perhaps most notable is United States v. Wong Kim Ark
It thus clearly appears that by the law of England for the last three centuries, beginning before the settlement of this country, and continuing to the present day, aliens, while residing in the dominions possessed by the crown of England, were within the allegiance, the obedience, the faith or loyalty, the protection, the power, and the jurisdiction of the English sovereign; and therefore every child born in England of alien parents was a natural-born subject, unless the child of an ambassador or other diplomatic agent of a foreign state, or of an alien enemy in hostile occupation of the place where the child was born. III. The same rule was in force in all the English colonies upon this continent down to the time of the Declaration of Independence, and in the United States afterwards, and continued to prevail under the constitution as originally established.
Actually they do have the power to define the criteria for who appears on a State ballot, that criteria can be NO MORE restrictive then that defined in the Constitution, however they can define ballot criteria intended to comply with the Constitution. For example, Arizona can define a criteria to be on the ballot where someone has to submit documented evidence they have been a resident of the United States for 14-years. They cannot set the criteria though that someone has to be a resident for 20-years to be eligible to appear on the ballot.
They have the power to decide how they will choose their electors. They even have the power to decide how a political party can qualify to have its candidate listed on the general election ballot. They have the power to not use a general election at all as their means to choose their electors. But they do not have the power to set their own criteria for determining the eligibility of a given candidate for the office of the President. The Senate has the responsibility to tally the total of electoral votes and to certify the results of the election. For the state to intervene would be a violation of the Constitution's distinction between state and federal powers, much like Florida's statute several years ago to re-insert Terri Shiavo's feeding tube was a violation by the legislator of constitutional separation of powers, and amounted to the legislator interfering with the acts of the judiciary.
The problem is that the phrase Natural Born Citizen is used in the Constitution, but there is no definitive definition as it applies to Presidency (despite what some may claim).
See above cited Supreme Court case.
Does it mean born a citizen as some think?
Yes, that is exactly what it means. There is no ambiguity about this.
Does it mean born a citizen based on the bloodline of the father as Vattal stated in the Law of Nations without regard to the soil?
No, the Supreme Court has rejected this theory.
Does it mean born a citizen to two citizen parents as stated by Congress in the 1790 Act? (An act that was later superseded in 1795 but in which the verbage was changed with no indication if it was an omission or a conscious intent to change the definition.)
That law was ultimately superseded by the 14th amendment, which extended citizenship at birth to all people born in the US regardless of lineage.
