....nor shall ANY STATE deprive ANY PERSON

Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution

Section 1. All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.

"The guarantees of protection contained in the Fourteenth Amendment to the Constitution extend to all persons within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States, without regard to differences of race, of color, or of nationality."


US Supreme Court
YICK WO V. HOPKINS, 118 U. S. 356 (1886)


In conclusion Arizona's immigration "Law" is DOA.

.

^ What a truly absurd, stupid and ridiculous post.

Since the AZ law denies nobody of Equal Protection of the Law nor does it deprive anybody of due process, there is NO basis whatsoever to believe the new AZ immigration law is "DOA." In fact, it should stand up QUITE WELL.


,

Even if it does stand up, they are going to bankrupt themselve trying to prove they are right.
And anytime a legal citizen is questioned or arrested because of this law, you can bet they will be suing the state. Last time I checked Arizona wasn't doing that great in this economy.

Why do they spend their tax dollars in a smart way, and go after the employers?

If this were true, every person who is pulled over for making a wide turn and found to have a driver's license would have bankrupted every city and every state in the US by now.

All the Americans of Mexican descent I've heard opine on this state they're sick of being lumped together with illegals, and they are 100 percent behind the law.
 
All the Americans of Mexican descent I've heard opine on this state they're sick of being lumped together with illegals, and they are 100 percent behind the law.

Great! Let's imagine now, an American of Mexican descent who is driving around with a little cocaine in the car. I'm sure he would be 100% behind the law as he's sitting in jail, having been arrested for the cocaine because some cop decided to stop him because he "looked like" an illegal alien to the officer.
 
Er..go ahead and take that to wherever you're headed. I'll wait.

The Arizona law authorizes detention of citizens without probable cause. The fact that someone "looks like" an illegal alien does not confer probable cause to stop on a police officer. What does an illegal alien look like? Does he look any different than the Americans of Mexican descent you are talking about?

So an Arizona officer might be just as likely to stop your American of Mexican descent as he would a Mexican who is an illegal.

Police are not required to ignore contraband they come across during a detention for some purpose totally unconnected to the contraband in the first instance. Hence, an American of Mexican descent with contraband in his car, illegally stopped pursuant to this law you say so many of them "are 100% behind," would be hauled off to jail, even though he was a U.S. citizen.

The point is, I doubt that someone in that fix would be so sympathetic to a law that had just empowered an officer to throw him behind bars due to an illegal search and seizure.
 
No, it doesn't. It requires probable cause.

So there goes all that well constructed post, fffft, down the drain. Because you're starting with a FALSE PREMISE.
 
Why do they spend their tax dollars in a smart way, and go after the employers?

Why not do both? That is what this law does. A
n employer shall not knowingly employ an unauthorized alien. If,
12 in the case when an employer uses a contract, subcontract or other
13 independent contractor agreement to obtain the labor of an alien in this
14 state, the employer knowingly contracts with an unauthorized alien or with a
15 person who employs or contracts with an unauthorized alien to perform the
16 labor, the employer violates this subsection.
http://www.azleg.gov/legtext/49leg/2r/bills/sb1070s.pdf
 
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No, it doesn't. It requires probable cause.

So there goes all that well constructed post, fffft, down the drain. Because you're starting with a FALSE PREMISE.

Here is what the law says:

FOR ANY LAWFUL CONTACT MADE BY A LAW ENFORCEMENT OFFICIAL OR AGENCY OF THIS STATE OR A COUNTY, CITY, TOWN OR OTHER POLITICAL SUBDIVISION OF THIS STATE WHERE REASONABLE SUSPICION EXISTS THAT THE PERSON IS AN ALIEN WHO IS UNLAWFULLY PRESENT IN THE UNITED STATES, A REASONABLE ATTEMPT SHALL BE MADE, WHEN PRACTICABLE, TO DETERMINE THE IMMIGRATION STATUS OF THE PERSON.

This would appear to require probable cause for the initial stop, in that it only applies following a "lawful contact" between the police and the subject.

But what about a consensual encounter that is based solely on a mere hunch that the subject is an illegal? That would appear to be legal under this law, yet it is NOT legal under the 4th Amendment, because it is a stop that is, de facto, not based on probable cause.
 
Er..go ahead and take that to wherever you're headed. I'll wait.

The Arizona law authorizes detention of citizens without probable cause. The fact that someone "looks like" an illegal alien does not confer probable cause to stop on a police officer. What does an illegal alien look like? Does he look any different than the Americans of Mexican descent you are talking about?

So an Arizona officer might be just as likely to stop your American of Mexican descent as he would a Mexican who is an illegal.

Police are not required to ignore contraband they come across during a detention for some purpose totally unconnected to the contraband in the first instance. Hence, an American of Mexican descent with contraband in his car, illegally stopped pursuant to this law you say so many of them "are 100% behind," would be hauled off to jail, even though he was a U.S. citizen.

The point is, I doubt that someone in that fix would be so sympathetic to a law that had just empowered an officer to throw him behind bars due to an illegal search and seizure.

The Arizona law REQUIRES probable cause. Read it yourself.....http://www.azleg.gov/legtext/49leg/2r/bills/sb1070s.pdf
 
No, it doesn't. It requires probable cause.

So there goes all that well constructed post, fffft, down the drain. Because you're starting with a FALSE PREMISE.

Here is what the law says:

FOR ANY LAWFUL CONTACT MADE BY A LAW ENFORCEMENT OFFICIAL OR AGENCY OF THIS STATE OR A COUNTY, CITY, TOWN OR OTHER POLITICAL SUBDIVISION OF THIS STATE WHERE REASONABLE SUSPICION EXISTS THAT THE PERSON IS AN ALIEN WHO IS UNLAWFULLY PRESENT IN THE UNITED STATES, A REASONABLE ATTEMPT SHALL BE MADE, WHEN PRACTICABLE, TO DETERMINE THE IMMIGRATION STATUS OF THE PERSON.

This would appear to require probable cause for the initial stop, in that it only applies following a "lawful contact" between the police and the subject.

But what about a consensual encounter that is based solely on a mere hunch that the subject is an illegal? That would appear to be legal under this law, yet it is NOT legal under the 4th Amendment, because it is a stop that is, de facto, not based on probable cause.

What the hell do you think reasonable suspicion is?
Answer: Probable cause.

If a cop thinks someone is suspicious, they have the right to stop them. This goes for any crime, and last I heard, it was illegal to be in this country without proper documentation.
 
No, it doesn't. It requires probable cause.

So there goes all that well constructed post, fffft, down the drain. Because you're starting with a FALSE PREMISE.

Here is what the law says:

FOR ANY LAWFUL CONTACT MADE BY A LAW ENFORCEMENT OFFICIAL OR AGENCY OF THIS STATE OR A COUNTY, CITY, TOWN OR OTHER POLITICAL SUBDIVISION OF THIS STATE WHERE REASONABLE SUSPICION EXISTS THAT THE PERSON IS AN ALIEN WHO IS UNLAWFULLY PRESENT IN THE UNITED STATES, A REASONABLE ATTEMPT SHALL BE MADE, WHEN PRACTICABLE, TO DETERMINE THE IMMIGRATION STATUS OF THE PERSON.

This would appear to require probable cause for the initial stop, in that it only applies following a "lawful contact" between the police and the subject.

But what about a consensual encounter that is based solely on a mere hunch that the subject is an illegal? That would appear to be legal under this law, yet it is NOT legal under the 4th Amendment, because it is a stop that is, de facto, not based on probable cause.

a hunch is not lawful contact....
 
PS...the INS used to actually do this. If they still did, maybe the states wouldn't have to take it on themselves.

The one thing our federal government is supposed to do is protect our borders. It's fairly telling that they fucking can't....but they don't want states to do it either. Even when those states are being raped and murdered by illegals.

Even more telling.....Obama and his minions are counting on voter fraud in 2012. If we start making that difficult, they're going to have a rough time.
 
Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution

Section 1. All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.

"The guarantees of protection contained in the Fourteenth Amendment to the Constitution extend to all persons within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States, without regard to differences of race, of color, or of nationality."


US Supreme Court
YICK WO V. HOPKINS, 118 U. S. 356 (1886)


In conclusion Arizona's immigration "Law" is DOA.

.




Sorry, but you're wrong on this. The 14th amendment only protects U.S. Citizens. It says so in Section 1 " No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States "
 
No, it doesn't. It requires probable cause.

So there goes all that well constructed post, fffft, down the drain. Because you're starting with a FALSE PREMISE.

Here is what the law says:

FOR ANY LAWFUL CONTACT MADE BY A LAW ENFORCEMENT OFFICIAL OR AGENCY OF THIS STATE OR A COUNTY, CITY, TOWN OR OTHER POLITICAL SUBDIVISION OF THIS STATE WHERE REASONABLE SUSPICION EXISTS THAT THE PERSON IS AN ALIEN WHO IS UNLAWFULLY PRESENT IN THE UNITED STATES, A REASONABLE ATTEMPT SHALL BE MADE, WHEN PRACTICABLE, TO DETERMINE THE IMMIGRATION STATUS OF THE PERSON.

This would appear to require probable cause for the initial stop, in that it only applies following a "lawful contact" between the police and the subject.

But what about a consensual encounter that is based solely on a mere hunch that the subject is an illegal? That would appear to be legal under this law, yet it is NOT legal under the 4th Amendment, because it is a stop that is, de facto, not based on probable cause.

What the hell do you think reasonable suspicion is?
Answer: Probable cause.

If a cop thinks someone is suspicious, they have the right to stop them. This goes for any crime, and last I heard, it was illegal to be in this country without proper documentation.

That is simply not true. Police cannot stop someone on a mere hunch. They have to have more. They have to have a REASONABLE suspicion - and the test is objective, not subjective.

You are correct that a reasonable suspicion is probable cause. The only problem with your analysis is that merely thinking someone is suspicious is not reasonable.

Now, having said that - I must admit that I am not fully at peace with my "consensual contact" argument. The law of consensual contact is that a police officer is entitled to walk up to anyone, any time, and engage them in conversation. They are free to keep on moving and to refuse to talk to the cop if they so desire. On the other hand, if they stop and return the conversation, the encounter is deemed to be "consensual" at that point.

Arizona cops could engage people in consensual encounters before this law was ever enacted. And during a consensual encounter, they can ask the subject if he has anything illegal on him. If the person says yes, they have PC right there to search him. If the subjects says no, then they can ask if it is all right to conduct a search and if the subject says yes, they can now conduct what is called a consensual search - which is totally legal.

But they (the AZ cops) DIDN'T do that prior to this new law. Why? A jurisdictional issue. AZ cops are state cops, not the feds. It wasn't their JOB to enforce immigration laws. Now, with this new law, it is.

I don't know - look, I don't like illegal aliens any more than the next guy. But I also don't like police exceeding their authority. This AZ thing is much more complicated than it first appears. I predict a long and thorny journey through the appellate courts.
 
:doubt: Because it's such an alien concept in the law, you mean?

A lawful contact between a police officer and a citizen (or a "person") is well established in the law. I mean, jeez. come on.
Then define it. Reason I ask is because someone I know recently appealed to a street cop for help and because the cop had a hair up his ass this person was mistreated and charged with a crime without probable cause.

So, helping someone across the street is lawful contact, no?

Jeez. You have conveyed one side of a story. I think, with all due respect, that maybe it should be taken with the proverbial grain of salt.

It is not exactly unknown in our collective experience that some cops have been known to lie. (Sometimes its the citizens/persons who do that lying thang, however.) Fucking LOTS of people get speeding tickets. I don't know the percentage, but I do know LOTS and LOTS of the drivers insist that they were NOT speeding. And sometimes, no doubt, they are right. They weren't. But oftentimes, they WERE despite their protests of innocence.

A lawful encounter between a cop on the street and a citizen (or a person) is analyzed in a variety of ways. It takes into account numerous factors. Does a cop need any particular Constitutional basis to approach me on a street to ask me a non-accusatory question? What must he do to elevate that presumably lawful encounter (which usually requires no probable cause or reasonable suspicion of anything) to a "seizure" of my person for constitutional purposes?

I'm not trying to duck your question. I'm just saying that it is not even remotely as simple as you make it out to be -- at least not in terms of proper legal analysis.

This is entirely distinct from the more troublesome question of what may happen if a police officer chooses, unilaterally, to distort the law or to later lie about an encounter when testifying about it in Court. I know that kind of shit does happen. The question is: how often does it happen. Then there's the question of whether or not -- in any particular case -- it happened at all.
I think it is, in terms of harassment if not arrest when you couple this vague "lawful contact" with the fact that the police may be sued if they don't turn in enough illegal immigrants. (btw, this is also unfair to the police, imo).
 
Here is what the law says:

FOR ANY LAWFUL CONTACT MADE BY A LAW ENFORCEMENT OFFICIAL OR AGENCY OF THIS STATE OR A COUNTY, CITY, TOWN OR OTHER POLITICAL SUBDIVISION OF THIS STATE WHERE REASONABLE SUSPICION EXISTS THAT THE PERSON IS AN ALIEN WHO IS UNLAWFULLY PRESENT IN THE UNITED STATES, A REASONABLE ATTEMPT SHALL BE MADE, WHEN PRACTICABLE, TO DETERMINE THE IMMIGRATION STATUS OF THE PERSON.

mexican_flag_viva_la_raza_viva_mexico_bumper_sticker-p128986883699784515trl0_400.jpg

^Reasónable Suspción?

:)

peace...
 
Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution

Section 1. All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.

"The guarantees of protection contained in the Fourteenth Amendment to the Constitution extend to all persons within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States, without regard to differences of race, of color, or of nationality."


US Supreme Court
YICK WO V. HOPKINS, 118 U. S. 356 (1886)


In conclusion Arizona's immigration "Law" is DOA.

.

You are Focusing in a Convenient and Selective Manner...

You Logical Conclusion of your Point in this OP is that there can be NO Immigration Laws...

You Understand this Reality, don't you?...

La Raza, Holmes!

:)

peace...
 
Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution

Section 1. All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.

"The guarantees of protection contained in the Fourteenth Amendment to the Constitution extend to all persons within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States, without regard to differences of race, of color, or of nationality."


US Supreme Court
YICK WO V. HOPKINS, 118 U. S. 356 (1886)


In conclusion Arizona's immigration "Law" is DOA.

.




Sorry, but you're wrong on this. The 14th amendment only protects U.S. Citizens. It says so in Section 1 " No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States "

I hate to turn on one of my own, but you are not correct here. You are leaving out the sentence that follows the one you quote. Here is the entire wording:

Section 1. All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.

The Privileges and Immunities clause does only apply to citizens of the United States. But the all-important Due Process clause, which follows the P&I clause, applies to "persons," which means ANYONE, whether a citizen or not.

I represent illegal aliens in court every day. I can assure you, they are afforded the same rights as citizens.
 
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A lawful encounter between a cop on the street and a citizen (or a person) is analyzed in a variety of ways. It takes into account numerous factors. Does a cop need any particular Constitutional basis to approach me on a street to ask me a non-accusatory question? What must he do to elevate that presumably lawful encounter (which usually requires no probable cause or reasonable suspicion of anything) to a "seizure" of my person for constitutional purposes?

(Snip - not relevant to reply.)

This is entirely distinct from the more troublesome question of what may happen if a police officer chooses, unilaterally, to distort the law or to later lie about an encounter when testifying about it in Court. I know that kind of shit does happen. The question is: how often does it happen. Then there's the question of whether or not -- in any particular case -- it happened at all.

I would like to address both of these statements because, in the context of the new AZ immigration law, I think they are both relevant.

In your first comment, you are describing a consensual encounter. Police can approach people on the street and engage them in conversation. That is entirely legal. The person is free to talk to the officer or keep on walking. Most people will talk to the officer because common courtesy, if nothing else says that when someone addresses you, you address them back - as officers initiating consensual encounters well know.

And make no mistake about it, when a cop comes up to you on the street and says, pleasantly, "Hey, how's it going today?" you can be damn sure he doesn't give a hoot about "how it's going" for you - he has a hidden agenda here, and hint: it isn't good for you.

So now you're talking to the cop. Can he ask you, "By the way, do you have anything illegal on you?" Yes. Now, you're in the soup. If you say yes, he can search you. If you say no, his next question will be: "Mind if I take a look? All right to search you?" Again, whatever you say at this point, you're screwed. If you say yes, he searches you. This is a totally legal, consensual search. If you say no, what do you think will happen then? Most people say yes.

OK - now your second comment, in the context of the new AZ law. The law requires a "lawful contact" prior to any attempts being made to verify citizenship. One would think this means a normal detention based on probable cause to believe the person involved is involved in some type of crime other than illegal immigration. But what about a consensual encounter? That's a "lawful contact." Will that satisfy the AZ law so that the cop can then attempt to verify citizenship?

Probably. BUT - what about the cop who uses the consensual encounter as a pretext for a random, immigration stop? Random immigration stops are still illegal, even under the AZ law. Your second comment is directed toward cops who lie. It would be very easy for a cop to lie and testify that, during a "consensual encounter" (that began with the words, "Hey, YOU! Hold it right there. Put your hands on the wall and SPREAD 'EM!") he learned that a person was in the country illegally.

How often does "shit" like this happen? FAR more often than you think.
 

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