Nephilim

[HaShev]

Again......when addressing a topic found in the Holy Scriptures, consult the Word of God in relation to the topic "Nephilim".

The scriptures self define the majority of the words via the content and context in which those words are used.

Were the Nephilim created via a marriage between men and angels? Most people use the passage found in Genesis 6:4 and attempt to declare the Nephilim to be a race of physical giants that did not exist prior to the "Sons of God" engaging in sexual activity with the "Daughters of Men".

There are "2" meanings to the term Sons of God.......the context in which used defines which meaning should be applied. 1st term Sons of God: Can refer to angels as used in (Job 1:16). 2nd use of the term Sons of God: Can refer to righteous humans that worshiped God and obeyed His law (Hosea 1:10)

Some make the claim that angels married human females to create a hybrid race of giants......but the scriptures tell us according to Jesus that angels do not marry, "For when they rise from the dead (and exist in spirit form only as are the angels of heaven spirits), they (the spirits) never marry or are given in marriage, BUT ARE LIKE THE ANGELS IN HEAVEN." -- Mark 12:25

Its true that the term Nephilim can mean a physical race but it can also mean GIANTS as in fame or stature.....as he was a giant among men.

Read the passage of Genesis 6:4 "There were giants on the earth in those days, AND ALSO AFTERWARDS, when the Sons of God came in to the daughters of men and they bore children to them. THOSE WERE THE MIGHTY MEN, MEN WHO WERE OF OLD.........."MEN OF RENOUN.". These MIGHTY MEN were of OLD and preexisted any marriage arrangements presented in Genesis 6:4 These "OLD NEPHILIM" existed as men of RENOUN: aka, WELL KNOWN from the times of old.

The time frame details the fact that the Nephilim (Men of Renoun) came first and already existed in "THOSE DAYS". Then the sons of God married the daughters of men.

The text when considered in its contextual integrity in a reasonable and logical fashion (taking into account all the scriptures have say about Angels, Nephilim, the sons of God, and the daughters of men) concludes: That the RIGHTEOUS people who worshiped and obeyed God intermarried with the daughters of men (worldly, atheists), as stated clearly in the very next verse.

Genesis 6:5 "And God saw that the wickedness of man was great on earth, and that every imagination of the thoughts of their hearts was only evil continually."

When discussing OT verses it's always important to keep the Hebrew Judaic definition of words, so yes malakhs (angels) referred to Rabbis and people of Israel who reflected or were messengers of that Essence we call G-d.
HOWEVER, you always use the Tanakh in English translation of OT verses not the Roman created religion version and interp.
The Tanakh uses "sons of the nobles would come to the daughters of man" not sons of God nor does it mention fallen Malakhs.
Who were the Nobles?
Probably the sons of the sons of Noah.
Remember I mention the sons of Ham, who became the detestable Jebusites, which later inhabited Germany and Denmark, so the warning is deeper then one can imagine, if that is who the nobles are in Genesis 6.

 

[Clyde 154]

The Septuagint translation of Hebrew was well in use centuries before Jesus' time. You are suggesting that one run over a dollar in order to pick up a dime. As was pointed out......there is no problem in the Septuagint translation of Hebrew when considering the context that self defines the terms "Sons of God" and "Daughters of men" in consideration of what the term Nephilim meant when the language used defined the Nephilim in question as being MEN OF OLD, having preexisted the history recorded in Genesis 6:4...........what ever TEXT you wish to use.........Hebrew, Septuagint, Koine Greek (the common language used for centuries during New Testament times)..............the content and context defines Nephilim as "men of RENOUN"..........not physical giants but great men of stature. Even in Hebrew its an easy thing to determine that angels are spiritual beings that cannot possibly mate with humans.

Example: Jesus is quoted in the New Testament referencing the Book of Daniel................the Dead Sea Scrolls contained a complete copy of the Book of Daniel. These scrolls are dated up to 2 centuries before the time of Jesus.

The strange thing? The New Testament quotes of Jesus in referencing the Book of Daniel were written in Koine Greek. If Greek was in use via Jesus and His Apostles ...............in proving that the Book of Daniel lost nothing in translation, its good enough for anyone to use. Why? Because there is approx 1100 years between translations, before the Dead Sea Scrolls were found the oldest copy was dated 900 years after the time of Jesus........but, its proven that nothing has been lost in translation through the GREEK language when translated from Hebrew.........the Dead Sea Scrolls were copied 200 years before the time of Jesus.

Why would Father God attempt to pigeon hole and hide His Revelations to men and limit knowledge to the use of a DEAD LANGUAGE? How is the promise made to father Abraham supposed to be fulfilled in spreading the lineage of Abraham all around the globe......if knowledge is limited to a few SPECIAL FEW "men of RENOUN"?

This is much like the Roman Church hiding the actual text of the New Testament, making it illegal to record any scripture in any language except LATIN ........where it required SPECIAL TRAINING even to read the scriptures.

Beware of anyone attempting to suggest that their faith is the only one that can correctly read from the Holy Scriptures.

 

[HaShev]

The Septuagint translation of Hebrew was well in use centuries before Jesus' time. You are suggesting that one run over a dollar in order to pick up a dime. As was pointed out......there is no problem in the Septuagint translation of Hebrew when considering the context that self defines the terms "Sons of God" and "Daughters of men" in consideration of what the term Nephilim meant when the language used defined the Nephilim in question as being MEN OF OLD, having preexisted the history recorded in Genesis 6:4...........what ever TEXT you wish to use.........Hebrew, Septuagint, Koine Greek (the common language used for centuries during New Testament times)..............the content and context defines Nephilim as "men of RENOUN"..........not physical giants but great men of stature. Even in Hebrew its an easy thing to determine that angels are spiritual beings that cannot possibly mate with humans.

Example: Jesus is quoted in the New Testament referencing the Book of Daniel................the Dead Sea Scrolls contained a complete copy of the Book of Daniel. These scrolls are dated up to 2 centuries before the time of Jesus.

The strange thing? The New Testament quotes of Jesus in referencing the Book of Daniel were written in Koine Greek. If Greek was in use via Jesus and His Apostles ...............in proving that the Book of Daniel lost nothing in translation, its good enough for anyone to use. Why? Because there is approx 1100 years between translations, before the Dead Sea Scrolls were found the oldest copy was dated 900 years after the time of Jesus........but, its proven that nothing has been lost in translation through the GREEK language when translated from Hebrew.........the Dead Sea Scrolls were copied 200 years before the time of Jesus.

Why would Father God attempt to pigeon hole and hide His Revelations to men and limit knowledge to the use of a DEAD LANGUAGE? How is the promise made to father Abraham supposed to be fulfilled in spreading the lineage of Abraham all around the globe......if knowledge is limited to a few SPECIAL FEW "men of RENOUN"?

This is much like the Roman Church hiding the actual text of the New Testament, making it illegal to record any scripture in any language except LATIN ........where it required SPECIAL TRAINING even to read the scriptures.

Beware of anyone attempting to suggest that their faith is the only one that can correctly read from the Holy Scriptures.

You have to understand the meaning of Spiritual/Biblical terms are very very different in Pagan mythology (which influenced the converged one world religion) then in the ancient Hebrew's precepts.
And how words are translated and used today can be way off their meaning and use of Biblical slang and poetic use of description. Example: you meantion Dan and dead sea scrolls, but today preachers translate the word clouds to be about coming out of the sky clouds instead of carefully noticing the wording is coming with the clouds not out of clouds. Clouds in the scrolls and 2Kings meant "gathering" (usually of Priests) who looked like puffy clouds with their white long flowing robes. Son of Man comes with (or out of) "the gathering" of Kohanim" to the MIKdash in his name, not out of the sky like some silly flying nun episode. Proving a mythological view of words is damaging to recognizing and understanding reality and usually attracts trolls who blast the nonsense type fantasy interpretations=(creates atheism).

 

[Indeependent]

Nephilim

The Nephilim (/ˈnɛfɪˌlɪm/; Hebrew: נְפִילִים‎) are mysterious beings or people mentioned in the Hebrew Bible. They are large and strong; the word Nephilim is loosely translated as giants in some Bibles but left untranslated in others. Some traditional Jewish explanations interpret them as fallen angels.

So...anyone believe this? Anne Rice touched on it, I believe, with her Mayfair Witch chronicles...Taltos is what she called them. But they were from Atlantis, or supposedly from there. Still...it's an interesting concept. What about all those HUGE skeletons that have been found and debunked but maybe were NOT supposed to be debunked? Some is hogwash, but there is much we don't know. Like, the ocean still has not been fully explored. So who is to say
Nephilim weren't real?

Have patience...
The Hebrew word for angel is Meh-lech, which actually means guide.
A guide is a single focus force that travels through an infinite number of spiritual levels until it becomes the impetus behind an actual action.
For instance, every particle of physicality has a guide moving it based on the intention of the being working on actually doing something.
That being can be a particle of dust, a plant or a human, each of which consists of billions of contrasting parts and intentions.

Some of these guides, who intentions are always Godly, said they would be better humans than the humans.

Guess what happened when these guides and their inherent intentions were unleashed?
They retained the ability to move, but they moved as they wished, not to as God wished.
They were powerful and had to eventually be destroyed in the flood before they destroyed all mankind.

 

[Likkmee]

Again......when addressing a topic found in the Holy Scriptures, consult the Word of God in relation to the topic "Nephilim".

The scriptures self define the majority of the words via the content and context in which those words are used.

Were the Nephilim created via a marriage between men and angels? Most people use the passage found in Genesis 6:4 and attempt to declare the Nephilim to be a race of physical giants that did not exist prior to the "Sons of God" engaging in sexual activity with the "Daughters of Men".

There are "2" meanings to the term Sons of God.......the context in which used defines which meaning should be applied. 1st term Sons of God: Can refer to angels as used in (Job 1:16). 2nd use of the term Sons of God: Can refer to righteous humans that worshiped God and obeyed His law (Hosea 1:10)

Some make the claim that angels married human females to create a hybrid race of giants......but the scriptures tell us according to Jesus that angels do not marry, "For when they rise from the dead (and exist in spirit form only as are the angels of heaven spirits), they (the spirits) never marry or are given in marriage, BUT ARE LIKE THE ANGELS IN HEAVEN." -- Mark 12:25

Its true that the term Nephilim can mean a physical race but it can also mean GIANTS as in fame or stature.....as he was a giant among men.

Read the passage of Genesis 6:4 "There were giants on the earth in those days, AND ALSO AFTERWARDS, when the Sons of God came in to the daughters of men and they bore children to them. THOSE WERE THE MIGHTY MEN, MEN WHO WERE OF OLD.........."MEN OF RENOUN.". These MIGHTY MEN were of OLD and preexisted any marriage arrangements presented in Genesis 6:4 These "OLD NEPHILIM" existed as men of RENOUN: aka, WELL KNOWN from the times of old.

The time frame details the fact that the Nephilim (Men of Renoun) came first and already existed in "THOSE DAYS". Then the sons of God married the daughters of men.

The text when considered in its contextual integrity in a reasonable and logical fashion (taking into account all the scriptures have say about Angels, Nephilim, the sons of God, and the daughters of men) concludes: That the RIGHTEOUS people who worshiped and obeyed God intermarried with the daughters of men (worldly, atheists), as stated clearly in the very next verse.

Genesis 6:5 "And God saw that the wickedness of man was great on earth, and that every imagination of the thoughts of their hearts was only evil continually."

 

[Clyde 154]

The Septuagint translation of Hebrew was well in use centuries before Jesus' time. You are suggesting that one run over a dollar in order to pick up a dime. As was pointed out......there is no problem in the Septuagint translation of Hebrew when considering the context that self defines the terms "Sons of God" and "Daughters of men" in consideration of what the term Nephilim meant when the language used defined the Nephilim in question as being MEN OF OLD, having preexisted the history recorded in Genesis 6:4...........what ever TEXT you wish to use.........Hebrew, Septuagint, Koine Greek (the common language used for centuries during New Testament times)..............the content and context defines Nephilim as "men of RENOUN"..........not physical giants but great men of stature. Even in Hebrew its an easy thing to determine that angels are spiritual beings that cannot possibly mate with humans.

Example: Jesus is quoted in the New Testament referencing the Book of Daniel................the Dead Sea Scrolls contained a complete copy of the Book of Daniel. These scrolls are dated up to 2 centuries before the time of Jesus.

The strange thing? The New Testament quotes of Jesus in referencing the Book of Daniel were written in Koine Greek. If Greek was in use via Jesus and His Apostles ...............in proving that the Book of Daniel lost nothing in translation, its good enough for anyone to use. Why? Because there is approx 1100 years between translations, before the Dead Sea Scrolls were found the oldest copy was dated 900 years after the time of Jesus........but, its proven that nothing has been lost in translation through the GREEK language when translated from Hebrew.........the Dead Sea Scrolls were copied 200 years before the time of Jesus.

Why would Father God attempt to pigeon hole and hide His Revelations to men and limit knowledge to the use of a DEAD LANGUAGE? How is the promise made to father Abraham supposed to be fulfilled in spreading the lineage of Abraham all around the globe......if knowledge is limited to a few SPECIAL FEW "men of RENOUN"?

This is much like the Roman Church hiding the actual text of the New Testament, making it illegal to record any scripture in any language except LATIN ........where it required SPECIAL TRAINING even to read the scriptures.

Beware of anyone attempting to suggest that their faith is the only one that can correctly read from the Holy Scriptures.

You have to understand the meaning of Spiritual/Biblical terms are very very different in Pagan mythology (which influenced the converged one world religion) then in the ancient Hebrew's precepts.
And how words are translated and used today can be way off their meaning and use of Biblical slang and poetic use of description. Example: you meantion Dan and dead sea scrolls, but today preachers translate the word clouds to be about coming out of the sky clouds instead of carefully noticing the wording is coming with the clouds not out of clouds. Clouds in the scrolls and 2Kings meant "gathering" (usually of Priests) who looked like puffy clouds with their white long flowing robes. Son of Man comes with (or out of) "the gathering" of Kohanim" to the MIKdash in his name, not out of the sky like some silly flying nun episode. Proving a mythological view of words is damaging to recognizing and understanding reality and usually attracts trolls who blast the nonsense type fantasy interpretations=(creates atheism).

I have to understand? LMAO In other words God only wants a few enlightened individuals to comprehend His Word?

Again.....you are willfully ignoring the context that is very translatable and comprehendible in order to project away the TEXT that self defines the Nephilim, not as physical giants but as MEN who preexisted the text used in Genesis 6:4, "MEN OF OLD", MEN OF GREAT RENOUN". These NEPHILIM existed both before and after the Sons of God married the Daughters of Men.

Why argue about the meaning of a word or phrase when its self defined within the context of the message? God is not the author of confusion.

 

[HaShev]

The Septuagint translation of Hebrew was well in use centuries before Jesus' time. You are suggesting that one run over a dollar in order to pick up a dime. As was pointed out......there is no problem in the Septuagint translation of Hebrew when considering the context that self defines the terms "Sons of God" and "Daughters of men" in consideration of what the term Nephilim meant when the language used defined the Nephilim in question as being MEN OF OLD, having preexisted the history recorded in Genesis 6:4...........what ever TEXT you wish to use.........Hebrew, Septuagint, Koine Greek (the common language used for centuries during New Testament times)..............the content and context defines Nephilim as "men of RENOUN"..........not physical giants but great men of stature. Even in Hebrew its an easy thing to determine that angels are spiritual beings that cannot possibly mate with humans.

Example: Jesus is quoted in the New Testament referencing the Book of Daniel................the Dead Sea Scrolls contained a complete copy of the Book of Daniel. These scrolls are dated up to 2 centuries before the time of Jesus.

The strange thing? The New Testament quotes of Jesus in referencing the Book of Daniel were written in Koine Greek. If Greek was in use via Jesus and His Apostles ...............in proving that the Book of Daniel lost nothing in translation, its good enough for anyone to use. Why? Because there is approx 1100 years between translations, before the Dead Sea Scrolls were found the oldest copy was dated 900 years after the time of Jesus........but, its proven that nothing has been lost in translation through the GREEK language when translated from Hebrew.........the Dead Sea Scrolls were copied 200 years before the time of Jesus.

Why would Father God attempt to pigeon hole and hide His Revelations to men and limit knowledge to the use of a DEAD LANGUAGE? How is the promise made to father Abraham supposed to be fulfilled in spreading the lineage of Abraham all around the globe......if knowledge is limited to a few SPECIAL FEW "men of RENOUN"?

This is much like the Roman Church hiding the actual text of the New Testament, making it illegal to record any scripture in any language except LATIN ........where it required SPECIAL TRAINING even to read the scriptures.

Beware of anyone attempting to suggest that their faith is the only one that can correctly read from the Holy Scriptures.

You have to understand the meaning of Spiritual/Biblical terms are very very different in Pagan mythology (which influenced the converged one world religion) then in the ancient Hebrew's precepts.
And how words are translated and used today can be way off their meaning and use of Biblical slang and poetic use of description. Example: you meantion Dan and dead sea scrolls, but today preachers translate the word clouds to be about coming out of the sky clouds instead of carefully noticing the wording is coming with the clouds not out of clouds. Clouds in the scrolls and 2Kings meant "gathering" (usually of Priests) who looked like puffy clouds with their white long flowing robes. Son of Man comes with (or out of) "the gathering" of Kohanim" to the MIKdash in his name, not out of the sky like some silly flying nun episode. Proving a mythological view of words is damaging to recognizing and understanding reality and usually attracts trolls who blast the nonsense type fantasy interpretations=(creates atheism).

I have to understand? LMAO In other words God only wants a few enlightened individuals to comprehend His Word?

Again.....you are willfully ignoring the context that is very translatable and comprehendible in order to project away the TEXT that self defines the Nephilim, not as physical giants but as MEN who preexisted the text used in Genesis 6:4, "MEN OF OLD", MEN OF GREAT RENOUN". These NEPHILIM existed both before and after the Sons of God married the Daughters of Men.

Why argue about the meaning of a word or phrase when its self defined within the context of the message? God is not the author of confusion.

The species predated Homosapiens, hence
"Men of old"

 

[Clyde 154]

As the scriptures declare..........the Nephilim "existed" as MEN OF OLD (not angels) before and after the supposed mating between humans and angels. The scriptures self define the Nephilim as men long before the attempt to mistranslate Genesis 6:4. There were GIANTS in our prehistory as defined in scripture.....but they were no more supernatural than the rest of humanity, they most certainly were not angelic according to scripture, they were described as MEN OF RENOUN, GIANTS among men.

Its more than nonsensical to suggest that ANGELS mated with HUMANS to produce the NEPHILIM when its clear they existed both before and after the record of Genesis 6:4 as MEN OF OLD with no respect for God or the laws of God, thus in comes the instructions to Noah in the following text. Genesis 6 is simply background information as to why God was sorry that He ever created man in HIS IMAGE, as men more and more where beginning to choose EVIL over Righteousness and God found favor in only 1 man and his family............Noah. (Genesis 6:14-24)

(Genesis 6: 5-8) God defined man as "wicked" and it "repented" Jehovah that He had made men on earth............

This passage demonstrates that the Nephilim were MEN as God is repented that He made them.......

One must take away the contextual integrity of Genesis 6 to conclude anything other than the message that is self defined with no ambiguity whatsoever within these passages predating the flood (God's judgment) that were presented as the REASON that God decided to judge mankind......that message is clear, its because of the freewill choices that man was making in choosing evil over righteousness. They were MADE ON EARTH not HEAVEN.

 

[The Irish Ram]

According to the Bible there were only 8 people left on earth whose DNA had not been corrupted by fallen angels. God destroyed the Nephilim, spared the 8, and repopulated the earth with those 8.
But there is a strange thing about that. There were Nephilim after the flood, but were limited in numbers. King David killed several.
Nephilim had recognizable features. One was size. One was extremely nasty dispositions. Another was extra digits. The Viking, Rollo, may have been one. Over 8 feet tall, he was a ruthless killer, and so large that he would break the backs of horses he tried to ride.

The Mayan King was another that fit the description. Wild Bill Coty wrote that American Indians would hold up their hand when coming in contact with strangers to show that they did not have the extra digit that would identify them as Nephilim, so as not to be mistaken for the barbaric natives to the south.

 

[.oldschool]

Ramban on Genesis 6:4

THE NEPHILIM. Rashi comments: “[They were called nephilim because] they fell (naphlu) and caused the downfall (hipilu) of the world.” This is found in...

www.sefaria.org

 

[HaShev]

Didn't take long to be proven right about mixing with the Denisovans as recently discovered and now proven tangibly.

Experts Discover A Girl Born From Two Different Species That's Rewriting Human History

From a cave in Siberia, a groundbreaking discovery about our human ancestors has emerged, and it's shaken the archaeological community to its core.

petsfanatic.com

My earlier post mentioning this species mixing with ours:

Nephilim

Nephilim The Nephilim (/ˈnɛfɪˌlɪm/; Hebrew: נְפִילִים‎) are mysterious beings or people mentioned in the Hebrew Bible. They are large and strong; the word Nephilim is loosely translated as giants in some Bibles but left untranslated in others. Some traditional Jewish explanations interpret them...

www.usmessageboard.com

 

[shimon]

Didn't take long to be proven right about mixing with the Denisovans as recently discovered and now proven tangibly.

Experts Discover A Girl Born From Two Different Species That's Rewriting Human History

From a cave in Siberia, a groundbreaking discovery about our human ancestors has emerged, and it's shaken the archaeological community to its core.

petsfanatic.com

My earlier post mentioning this species mixing with ours:

Nephilim

Nephilim The Nephilim (/ˈnɛfɪˌlɪm/; Hebrew: נְפִילִים‎) are mysterious beings or people mentioned in the Hebrew Bible. They are large and strong; the word Nephilim is loosely translated as giants in some Bibles but left untranslated in others. Some traditional Jewish explanations interpret them...

www.usmessageboard.com

Pretty straightforward men of old… Maybe that’s where they got the term Dennis the ( Menace) from.. lol But seriously it shows how divergent groups merged not just physically but with ideas as well….You can see this in other animal species as well that mate and create hybrids such as wolves and coyotes .Polar Bears and black bears… Tigers and Lions etc etc…

 

[Clyde 154]

Pretty straightforward men of old… Maybe that’s where they got the term Dennis the ( Menace) from.. lol But seriously it shows how divergent groups merged not just physically but with ideas as well….You can see this in other animal species as well that mate and create hybrids such as wolves and coyotes .Polar Bears and black bears… Tigers and Lions etc etc…

Bears are bears, felines are felines and K-9s are K-9s..........there is no mating between different species. All species can only reproduce within their species.

In a sort of back handed way you are attempting to address a topic known as "RING SPECIES". A ring species is a set of closely related animals. Each can interbred with their nearest cousins, but the animals at each end cannot reproduce. (Example: The mating of a horse and donkey produces a mule, but reproduction is impossible between 2 mules)....yet they are all examples of a species of animal called "Equus". Why does a horse have more Chromosomes (64) than a Donkey (62).....while producing an animal with (63) when mated.

Attempt to explain.

The evolutionist would attempt to tell us that the species starts at one end or the other and gradually changes to the point where reproduction is impossible in breeding with starting species. But......something the evolutionist will not point out, for evolution to be true and factual new information would have to be added with each supposed step of evolution. But that is not the case. You never really have a NEW CREATURE of a different species......all the mating is between LIKE KINDS. K-9s, Felines, etc. You simply get to different variations of the same species, all supposed evolution is within the same species.

But the creationist will point out that the breeding must start in the middle with the original variation, because it is at this point that demonstrates the fact that breeding has the purest strain of DNA.....the further you get from the middle, the more is taken away (due to corrupted mutated links of DNA........to the point that neither end can reproduce..

Losing information does not create anything new.......it takes away from the perfectly normal. Why a loss of DNA information the further you get from the middle? To simplify: Take 3 groups (A), (B), and (C). A can breed with B, B can breed with C, but A and C cannot breed to reproduce......proving commonality in the middle.

Therefore because B can reproduce with either A or C......that DNA contains more information.

The evolutionist will attempt to tell us that you can begin with A and gradually gain information all the way through C.

 

[shimon]

Bears are bears, felines are felines and K-9s are K-9s..........there is no mating between different species. All species can only reproduce within their species.

In a sort of back handed way you are attempting to address a topic known as "RING SPECIES". A ring species is a set of closely related animals. Each can interbred with their nearest cousins, but the animals at each end cannot reproduce. (Example: The mating of a horse and donkey produces a mule, but reproduction is impossible between 2 mules)....yet they are all examples of a species of animal called "Equus". Why does a horse have more Chromosomes (64) than a Donkey (62).....while producing an animal with (63) when mated.

Attempt to explain.

The evolutionist would attempt to tell us that the species starts at one end or the other and gradually changes to the point where reproduction is impossible in breeding with starting species. But......something the evolutionist will not point out, for evolution to be true and factual new information would have to be added with each supposed step of evolution. But that is not the case. You never really have a NEW CREATURE of a different species......all the mating is between LIKE KINDS. K-9s, Felines, etc. You simply get to different variations of the same species, all supposed evolution is within the same species.

But the creationist will point out that the breeding must start in the middle with the original variation, because it is at this point that demonstrates the fact that breeding has the purest strain of DNA.....the further you get from the middle, the more is taken away (due to corrupted mutated links of DNA........to the point that neither end can reproduce..

Losing information does not create anything new.......it takes away from the perfectly normal. Why a loss of DNA information the further you get from the middle? To simplify: Take 3 groups (A), (B), and (C). A can breed with B, B can breed with C, but A and C cannot breed to reproduce......proving commonality in the middle.

Therefore because B can reproduce with either A or C......that DNA contains more information.

The evolutionist will attempt to tell us that you can begin with A and gradually gain information all the way through C.

Well that is quite interesting but not what I have read I was under the impression that viable fertile offspring were produced that could mate with other animals but granted I am not an expert on this subject therefore I might want to look into this more deeply thankyou for your imput I will take it into consideration….

 

[HaShev]

Bears are bears, felines are felines and K-9s are K-9s..........there is no mating between different species. All species can only reproduce within their species.

In a sort of back handed way you are attempting to address a topic known as "RING SPECIES". A ring species is a set of closely related animals. Each can interbred with their nearest cousins, but the animals at each end cannot reproduce. (Example: The mating of a horse and donkey produces a mule, but reproduction is impossible between 2 mules)....yet they are all examples of a species of animal called "Equus". Why does a horse have more Chromosomes (64) than a Donkey (62).....while producing an animal with (63) when mated.

Attempt to explain.

The evolutionist would attempt to tell us that the species starts at one end or the other and gradually changes to the point where reproduction is impossible in breeding with starting species. But......something the evolutionist will not point out, for evolution to be true and factual new information would have to be added with each supposed step of evolution. But that is not the case. You never really have a NEW CREATURE of a different species......all the mating is between LIKE KINDS. K-9s, Felines, etc. You simply get to different variations of the same species, all supposed evolution is within the same species.

But the creationist will point out that the breeding must start in the middle with the original variation, because it is at this point that demonstrates the fact that breeding has the purest strain of DNA.....the further you get from the middle, the more is taken away (due to corrupted mutated links of DNA........to the point that neither end can reproduce..

Losing information does not create anything new.......it takes away from the perfectly normal. Why a loss of DNA information the further you get from the middle? To simplify: Take 3 groups (A), (B), and (C). A can breed with B, B can breed with C, but A and C cannot breed to reproduce......proving commonality in the middle.

Therefore because B can reproduce with either A or C......that DNA contains more information.

The evolutionist will attempt to tell us that you can begin with A and gradually gain information all the way through C.

The idea through the article I posted was that they "used to think" mixed species could not reproduce after such anomolies, but it's been proven wrong by animals in the wild, in captivity, and in dna tests of newly found cross breeds remains, which make sense because we already know there is a small percentage of Denisovan DNA in regions and we've known Of Neanderthal DNA found in some of our populations and there had to be reproduction for the continuation.

 

[HaShev]

Yep Giants!

 

[Gracie]

Fascinating reading, folks!! Thanks for you inputs.

 

[surada]

clearly that makes you feel better. LOL

They are morality tales... teaching narratives.

 

[Calypso Jones]

every one is entitled to an opinion.

 

[surada]

every one is entitled to an opinion.

Did you think they were science and history? Christians don't have to be ignorant and uneducated.