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Penelope,
I don't see where your response shows examples where a daytime or a night time was forecast or said to be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could have occur.
No it's not, because in order to understand Matthews mimick of the OT Jonah story you need to first understand the use of words in that era and use that to better interpret the Jonah story then and only then can you better grasp Matthew, otherwise you use modern day use of words not Biblical era ones.shimon,
re: "Wow I thought this thread was dead..."
It appears your thinking was incorrect.
BTW, your comments deal with issues for a different topic.
It turns out that that verse in Mathew is extremely problematic for a number of reasons and thanks to rstrats because I would not have looked it up otherwise...No it's not, because in order to understand Matthews mimick of the OT Jonah story you need to first understand the use of words in that era and use that to better interpret the Jonah story then and only then can you better grasp Matthew, otherwise you use modern day use of words not Biblical era ones.shimon,
re: "Wow I thought this thread was dead..."
It appears your thinking was incorrect.
BTW, your comments deal with issues for a different topic.
This would be liken to reading your kids slang today but interpreting it with literal meaning as you know it, not as it's meaning used in slang to hide their rebellious language from parents/or authority.
Go back and read Jonah now knowing Ships=army and sea=Rome and now tell me where your preachers ever taught it properly if they interpreted ships as ships and seas as waters? So if Matthew uses Jonah then you have to admit your preachers got that wrong as well or admit Matthew was not written by a Jew. Thus a Roman would not get it translated properly, because the slang was hidden from them as is the HaShem (i.e. the name).
Considering the fact that a huge percentage of Mathew was plagerized from Mark and that whoever wrote Mathew figured it would be clever using The Jonah story to place their idol / Jesus or logos there...Of course we realize from past experience that the author ofMathew was trying to fit his or her version of Jesus into events and it doesn’t shock me at all nor should it surprise any that read this. This is just another example of the ones who wrote the Christian scriptures trying to force in their Jesus where he does not belong and like they claim he belongs in hundreds of places in the Jewish scriptures which is utter nonsense...Further since whoever wrote those passages in Mathew would have had access to libraries or documents with interesting tidbits of knowledge then whoever wrote it would have known in Cuneform that the city of Nineveh was associated with Nina which is symbolized as a fish within a house..Further the ancient Citadel of Nineveh is situated on a hill today called Quyunjig which means little lamb... This is humorous as the lamb is associated with Jesus but the humorous part is that the lamb was a god of Egypt that the Israelites slaughtered in front of the Egyptians showing it had no power over them...Michael has pointed out many times the three layers of prophecy that show up on many occasions one could say that once again he is correct here as well.. The Israelites knew what the slang terms meant regarding , fish, seas, waters etc etc.. The ones who wrote Mathew did not and could not and by their plagerizing and taking aNo it's not, because in order to understand Matthews mimick of the OT Jonah story you need to first understand the use of words in that era and use that to better interpret the Jonah story then and only then can you better grasp Matthew, otherwise you use modern day use of words not Biblical era ones.shimon,
re: "Wow I thought this thread was dead..."
It appears your thinking was incorrect.
BTW, your comments deal with issues for a different topic.
This would be liken to reading your kids slang today but interpreting it with literal meaning as you know it, not as it's meaning used in slang to hide their rebellious language from parents/or authority.
Go back and read Jonah now knowing Ships=army and sea=Rome and now tell me where your preachers ever taught it properly if they interpreted ships as ships and seas as waters? So if Matthew uses Jonah then you have to admit your preachers got that wrong as well or admit Matthew was not written by a Jew. Thus a Roman would not get it translated properly, because the slang was hidden from them as is the HaShem (i.e. the name).
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a discussion with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows that the phrase x days and xnights was ever used in the first century or before when it absolutely didnt include at least parts of the x days and at least parts of the x nights?
1. That the Laws that contained the 'Day of Rest' is as those 'laws' which The Apostle Paul fought against as against the 'Judaizers' in relations to The Gentiles in regards with and to the other laws, such as in the 'law' of circumcision and [the] other '(J)ewish' Laws which he [also] argued against even with his fellow brother in Christ, the Apostle Peter, when he said, 'why do you compel me to live as the (J)ews when you live as the Gentiles'?
luchitociencia,
re: "Day 1. (Wednesday night) celebration of Passover followed by the Feast of Unleavened Bread. Christ dead in the tomb."
That would be an issue for a different topic. Perhaps you could start one.