Matthew 12:40

[ding]

"nutjob."?

And that's coming from A True Peanut Farmer.

Your time would be better spent communing with God rather than worshiping the religious dogma of whatever fringe religion you belong to.

 

[rstrats]

These instances commonly highlight a cultural usage where any part of a day or night is counted as a full unit.

I agree completely with that. But that's not what this topic is about. It's about the commonality of usage where no part of a day or no part of a night is counted as a full unit.

 

[rstrats]

• Esther’s Fast: Queen Esther asked the Jews to fast for "three days, night or day" (Esther 4:16), but she went to the king on the "third day" (Esther 5:1), meaning she did not wait for a full 72 hours.
• Joseph’s Imprisonment: Joseph imprisoned his brothers for "three days," yet released them on the "third day" (Genesis 42:17-18).
• David and the Egyptian: David found an Egyptian who had not eaten for "three days and three nights" (1 Samuel 30:12-13), but the man stated he was abandoned by his master "three days ago," indicating part of a day was counted.
• The "Third Day" Convention: In ancient, non-zero-based counting, a time mentioned as the "third day" from today means today is counted as day one, tomorrow is day two, and the next day is day three (e.g., Friday-Saturday-Sunday).

Only the Esther account might be one example but that that is dependent on "three days, night or day" meaning the same as "three days and three nights".

 

[rosends]

I don't see where your link show that a night time was said to be involved when no part of a night time could be. Perhaps you could explain why you think that it does.

the text says that the fast begins from "the evening of the ninth" which would seem to indicate the time before the beginning of the tenth, but the fast is only for the tenth. In Judaism, the proper fast is on the 10th but one gets credit for having fasted on the 9th because the language attributes that "evening" to the 9th even though one does not fast on the 9th.

 

[Quantrill]

So far that has been true - no one visiting this topic has said that it was common usage. But that doesn't rule out that someone in the future might say it.

How does it meet the definition of a riddle?


And as I said previously, absolutely not! I would never do that. Please explain why that is your takeaway.

Of course it is, and the only response that is applicable would be the providing of examples which show that it was common to say that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could be.

Thus you have just made up this riddle of yours. No believer would think there was/is a lack of a third night. (Matt. 12:40) "For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth."

You say: "...examples which show that it was common to say that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could be."

What event?

Quantrill

 

[rosends]

• Esther’s Fast: Queen Esther asked the Jews to fast for "three days, night or day" (Esther 4:16), but she went to the king on the "third day" (Esther 5:1), meaning she did not wait for a full 72 hours.
• Joseph’s Imprisonment: Joseph imprisoned his brothers for "three days," yet released them on the "third day" (Genesis 42:17-18).
• David and the Egyptian: David found an Egyptian who had not eaten for "three days and three nights" (1 Samuel 30:12-13), but the man stated he was abandoned by his master "three days ago," indicating part of a day was counted.
• The "Third Day" Convention: In ancient, non-zero-based counting, a time mentioned as the "third day" from today means today is counted as day one, tomorrow is day two, and the next day is day three (e.g., Friday-Saturday-Sunday).

there is rabbinical discussion about the Esther passage, whether it means 3 24 hour periods, or if it would be 2 days and nights, UP TO the 3rd day.

 

[ding]

Only the Esther account might be one example but that that is dependent on "three days, night or day" meaning the same as "three days and three nights".

Actually that was three examples and the accepted convention by everyone but you.

 

[ding]

there is rabbinical discussion about the Esther passage, whether it means 3 24 hour periods, or if it would be 2 days and nights, UP TO the 3rd day.

Thanks, but I don't care that much to be honest. It's not a hill worthy dying over. This seems like a dumb discussion to me because 3 days does not necessarily mean 72 hours, back then or even today. These are the kind of things people who worship their religion instead of God quibble over when arguing against a different religion. I don't see how arguing about someone else's religion makes me a better person. I think it does the opposite.

 

[rstrats]

Actually that was three examples and the accepted convention by everyone but you.

What? How do you come up with three examples in the Esther account?

 

[ding]

What? How do you come up with three examples in the Esther account?

Esther’s Fast, Joseph’s Imprisonment and David and the Egyptian.

 

[rstrats]

Esther’s Fast, Joseph’s Imprisonment and David and the Egyptian.

The Genesis account isn't an example since nothing is said about the number of daytimes or the number of night times that would be involved with the three calendar days.

Also, the 1 Samuel account is not an example because nothing in it precludes at least a portion of each one of three daytimes nor at least a portion of each one of three night times.

 

[ding]

The Genesis account isn't an example since nothing is said about the number of daytimes or the number of night times that would be involved with the three calendar days.

Also, the 1 Samuel account is not an example because nothing in it precludes at least a portion of each one of three daytimes nor at least a portion of each one of three night times.

Esther 4:16 and Esther 5:1

 

[ding]

Also, the 1 Samuel account is not an example because nothing in it precludes at least a portion of each one of three daytimes nor at least a portion of each one of three night times.

David found an Egyptian who had not eaten for "three days and three nights" (1 Samuel 30:12-13), but the man stated he was abandoned by his master "three days ago," indicating part of a day was counted.

1 Samuel 30:12-13 demonstrates that in biblical, Jewish, and ancient Near Eastern contexts, a part of a day was counted as a full day. The Egyptian slave mentions he was abandoned by his master three days prior, yet he was found and revived within a timeframe that technically constituted only one whole day and parts of two others.
Key insights from 1 Samuel 30:12-13 include:

• Contextual Evidence: In verse 12, the slave states he had not eaten or drank for "three days and three nights". In verse 13, he notes this abandonment happened "three days ago," indicating an idiom of inclusive reckoning.
• Inclusive Counting: According to Jewish tradition, any part of a day, even a few minutes, is counted as a full 24-hour day.
• Cultural Idiom: The phrase "three days and three nights" was often used to describe a period covering parts of three consecutive days, rather than a strict 72-hour period.
• Application: This specific passage is frequently used by scholars to explain other biblical timelines, such as Jesus's,, 3 days and 3 nights in the grave (part of Friday, all of Saturday, part of Sunday).

 

[rstrats]

Esther 4:16 and Esther 5:1

I commented on the Esther account in post #443.

 

[rstrats]

ding,

Why did you quote my comment from post #451 and then address something else?

 

[ding]

I commented on the Esther account in post #443.

Don't care. Esther 4:16 and Esther 5:1 are an example you asked for. So is 1 Samuel 30:12-13 and Genesis 42:17-18. You lose.

 

[ding]

ding,

Why did you quote my comment from post #451 and then address something else?

Why are you ignoring Esther 4:16, Esther 5:1, 1 Samuel 30:12-13 and Genesis 42:17-18?

Because they all work together to show that in biblical, Jewish, and ancient Near Eastern contexts, a part of a day was counted as a full day.

 

[rstrats]

Don't care. Esther 4:16 and Esther 5:1 are an example you asked for. So is 1 Samuel 30:12-13 and Genesis 42:17-18. You lose.

Now I really know that you're just messing with me. Because in the immortal words of John McEnroe, "You can't be serious."

 

[ding]

Now I really know that you're just messing with me. Because in the immortal words of John McEnroe, "You can't be serious."

I am. Apparently everyone in the world - except you - knows that according to Jewish tradition, any part of a day, even a few minutes, is counted as a full 24-hour day.

Try googling it. See if you can make google agree with your dumb ass belief.

 

[rstrats]

I am. Apparently everyone in the world - except you - knows that according to Jewish tradition, any part of a day, even a few minutes, is counted as a full 24-hour day.

I agree with that 100 percent. However, that is an issue for a deferent topic.