I don’t want other peoples money. I’m doing just fine and paying in more than I’m taking out. I’m just trying to have an honest debate here. How does it equate to 42% please explain.
The effective rate was far lower because there were many loopholes, breaks and shelters that we no longer have because Reagan shut down many of them. Also, the top rate was a marginal rate that applied only to dollars earned above $200,000, and there were not many even rich people who earned a lot more than that.
Great, let's then be honest about the high marginal tax rate and the growth.
1. Of course, it didn't apply to all the money a person made, only to the dollars above $200,000. Hence, if a very wealthy person made $210,000, only $10,000 was subject to the insanely high confiscatory rate.
2. We were the big dog on the block. American auto manufacturers, for example, faced no global competition. Why? Because, just a few short years before we destroyed the manufacturing bases of the world's powers. Anyone remember a thing called WWII? We were the only major country on the planet not touched by it.
3. What kind of deductions and tax shelters did the wealthy enjoy? Ever hear of loan expenses? You could deduct such things as interest payments, making borrowing money a whole lot cheaper. You could also claim real estate depreciation.
4. We had a massive influx of young working age men primed to do hard work in construction on things like office buildings, cars and highways. Why? Because just a few years before, we stopped a really big war and a whole bunch of GI's came home to a large country with lots of resources and an intact manufacturing base and no competition. Also, women had entered the work force during the war, and many chose to stay, leaving a robust work force ready to work.
So, yes, let's have an honest debate and hear you admit you want to tie the growth of the 50's to the high top marginal tax rate only, which is dishonest.