It affects the liberty of children and the liberty of states to protect their formative environment.
The courts haven't found this to be true. In explicit contradiction to your claims, they've found the exact opposite: that denying gay marriage to same sex parents of children causes harm to those children.
And it humiliates tens of thousands of children now being raised by same-sex couples. The law in question makes it even more difficult for the children to understand the integrity and closeness of their own family and its concord with other families in their community and in their daily lives.....
.....DOMA also brings financial harm to children of same sex couples. It raises the cost of health care for families by taxing health benefits provided by employers to their workers’ same-sex spouses. And it denies or reduces benefits allowed to families upon the loss of a spouse and parent, benefits that are an integral part of family security.
Windsor V. US
You ignore this. The courts overwhelmingly don't. Nor would any rational person.
Gay marriage guarantees the lack of vital complimentary gendered role model and one blood parent in that child[ren's] home 100% of the time. So gay marriage directly harms children. It puts them at a disadvantage and at psychological risk.
Several problems with your reasoning, all of which you're familiar with. First, gays and lesbians are already having kids. So the recognition of marriage is irrelevant to the issues you've cited. If gay marriage is recognized, if its not, gays and lesbians will still have kids. Rendering your entire point moot.
Second, your claim that gay marriage 'directly harms chilren' by the lack of complimentary gendered role models is speculative nonsense. Children raised in same sex couples are just as healthy and well adjusted as those raised by hetero couples. So the 'harm' you imagine, isn't. You're imagining harm that doesn't exist. And ignoring actual harm of denying gay marriage to the same sex parents of children. Which does exist, as Justice Kennedy so eloquently demonstrated in the Windsor Decision.
Third, since gays and lesbians are having children anyway, regardless of being married, the question is what harm is done to those children by refusing to affirm the marriage of their parents. And the courts have firmly established, denying marriage to the parents of those children does harm those children. While the imaginary 'harm' that you've fallaciously posited would exist regardless of the recognition of same sex marriage. If it were actually real, which it isn't.
So no harm from gay marriage in truth, no harm from gay marriage in theory, and harm from the denial of gay marriage in truth.
Rendering your perspective triply irrational.
More than that, gay marriage and its judicial sychophants (soon to be impeached) has threatened democracy at its core.
None of them are being impeached. You're simply making more useless predictions based on what you want to happen rather than what the evidence strongly indicates will happen.
urrently several of the lower federal activist circuit courts have defied the latest SCOTUS ruling on the specific question of law "do states have the power and authority to ratify or deny gay marriage". Windsor 2013 found that they indeed do. That is the law of the land today.
Obvious and intentional nonsense. There's no portion of the Windsor decision that includes 'do states have the power and authority to ratify or deny gay marriage'. No portion of the Windsor decision authorizes the States to deny gay marriage. Here's the Windsor ruling.
http://www.supremecourt.gov/opinions/12pdf/12-307_6j37.pdf
Show me. You'll find you just lied your ass off, as no such passages exist anywhere in the ruling. As you already know, having read it.
And since federal justice can't defy passages in a USSC ruling
that don't exist, your impeachment babble is proven inaccurate drivel of no consequence or predictive value. If your argument had merit, you wouldn't have needed to lie as you just did to support it.
Lower circuits courts that ordered states to ratify gay marraige against their democratic Will are in violation and contempt of that Finding just last year. They can no more order the states in their jurisdiction against their Will than a king could order the US to abdicate its Constitution to a foreign power.
Nope. There was no such passage in the Windsor ruling that authorized any denial of gay marriage, anywhere.
And I defy you to quote the passage that does. Just remember to include 'subject to certain constitutional guarantees' with the quote. Its the portion you usually omit. The ruling speaks only to the recognition of gay marriage in some states and the federal statutes covered in DOMA.
So this cult has caused insidious harms to democracy. And it stands to predictably harm the children in the untold 100s of millions into future generations by guaranteeing to deprive them of the complimentary gendered parent and one blood parent 100% of the time. This twice violates the power of the states.
Nope. As the Loving v. Virginia decision demonstrated in 1967, the States don't have the authority to violate the constitutional rights of federal citizens. Which every US citizen is. When the marriage laws of a State conflict with the constitutional rights of the individual, the constitutional rights of the individual prevail. Rendering your 'harms to democracy' claims more pseudo legal drivel of no consequence.
States are interested in marriage not for the adults in it at all. States' only concern with marriage is to create incentives for two complimentary gendered parents to come together to create the best formative environment for the two complimentary genders the state anticipates children will arrive as.
Then why all the infertile couples being allowed to marry or remain married? Why don't the incentives occur when a child is born, rather than when a couple marries if the goal is the child? If children is the purpose of marriage, why doesn't any state in the union require that the ability to procreate in order to get married? No one?
The standard you are insisting we use to exclude gays from marriage doesn't exist and applies to no one. Why then would we make it up, inexplicably exempt all straights, and then apply it only to gays?
There is no reason.
Childless hetero couples do not violate the standard.
They absolutely do. As they demonstrate there's a perfectly valid basis of marriage that has nothing to do with having children or being able to have them. And having firmly established that such a valid basis exists, there's no reason to deny that basis to gays.
Worse, you're laughably contradicting yourself. As your argument opened with the harm to children because of gay marriage. And are now arguing that gays can't be married because their unions have nothing to do with children. Those are mutually exclusive positions. And neither is valid.