Personhood begins when a live human emerges from a human mother's womb. Prior to that point, the developing lifeform in the womb is nothing more than something that has the potential to be a person.
How do you reconcile that belief with the legal definitions which simply say a natural person [is] "a human being?"
Are you claiming that a prenatal child is not even a human being - until they emerge from the womb?
Yes.
Okay.
Do you have any science / biological references to support your claim/ denial?
Anything?
Blue from your prior post:
I have nothing to reconcile because human being and person are, in my mind, synonymous.
I agree that they are synonymous and that they should always be synonymous.
One becomes a human being upon emerging from the womb. One becomes a person upon emerging from the womb.
How many ways does this claim of yours have to be refuted?
Biologically; ". . . denial that human embryos are human beings in the embryonic stage of development cannot be sustained in light of the scientific facts. Modern embryology and human developmental biology establish beyond any doubt that human embryos are wholes and not mere parts, that they are indeed determinate individuals; and that they are organisms that endure throughout the developmental process, that is, both during gestation and after birth." -
Robert P. George is a member of the President's Council on Bioethics.
Legally; "(C) If the person engaging in the conduct thereby intentionally kills or attempts to kill the unborn child, that person shall instead of being punished under subparagraph (A), be punished as provided under sections
1111 (murder),
1112 (manslaughter), and
1113 (attempted murder) of this title for intentionally killing or attempting to kill
a human being. - U.S. Code 1841
Your denials have been refuted.
You see for all the things I am, the one thing I am not is irrational to the point that I will espouse a principle that I cannot abide in all cases where that principle might be applicable. Were I to accept that personhood begins at some point prior to birth, I'd then need to also consider whether corporations too can exist when they are in their formative state because that will have opened to door to that line of argument around the question of what personhood is.
Apples and oranges.
Corporations are legally recognized as "persons" in name only. No-one can be (nor likely ever will be) charged with MURDER for killing a corporation.
On the contrary, people have been charged and convicted of murder for killing a child or children in the womb.
You are failing to recognize the legal distinctions between a "
natural person" such as a human being (in ANY stage of their life) and a "
legal person" such as a corporation. The adjectives are there for a reason.
You see, I don't allow the moral dimension to enter into what I consider a person.
Neither do I. And this thread has nothing directly to do with the moral issues of what to do about the rights of the child after their "personhood" has been recognized.
There are many people who hold that abortions (for example) would still be justified. . . even if and when the "personhood" of a child in the womb has been established.
That would be a conversation worth having but that is not what this thread is about.
I establish a very clear and easily identified point in time at which personhood begins for tangible things, or things that can be made tangible, and that point is objectively comparable for all things that are deemed to be born.
- Humans are born when they emerge from the womb. Period. Prior to that point in time, there is no human.
- Corporations are born when their documents of incorporation are filed. Period. Prior to that, there is no corporation.
Again, apples and oranges. The two (at no point) are every legally recognized as the same kinds of "beings." Corporations are "persons" in name only. Human beings are (supposed to be) "persons" in every respect.
Red and Blue from your prior post:
I don't have a need for more than simple logic for I am unwilling to succumb to the
fallacies of division and
composition. Having some of the characteristics of a human being does not of a human being make of a fetus.
This raises an interesting question.
Are we as a society to define human beings / person's by human traits and characteristics that the new observed organism "has?" (inclusive)
Or, do we as a society define human beings / persons by the human traits and attributes that they may only temporarily LACK? (exclusive)
I think it should be the first one.
Moreover, logically speaking, it doesn't matter what potential to become a person that a fetus has.
As a person in the fetal stage of their life already is "a person" - at least as established by our laws against fetal homicide - Your comment doesn't make any sense.
One of the defining traits of being a human being is emergence and existence outside the womb.
Got any cites or references to back that up?
If you want a 20 week or five week old fetus to assume personhood, then as far as I'm concerned, you'll need to remove it from the womb at that point in its existence. At that point, I will call it a person and consider it as deserving all the rights and privileges appertaining to people.
Emerging from the womb is what makes a person "born" a "citizen." (14th Amendment) You seem to be confusing the two. A lot.
How many people do one see when one sees a pregnant woman?
I see at least two and more importantly the laws already see them as more than one person (at least in some respects) as well.
I see one person, the pregnant woman. When the fetus leaves the womb, at whatever point in time that occurs, I see two people.
Hopefully with the information provided, you will revisit that belief.
We have a term, birth, that refers to the point at which one's existence as a person begins.
No. the word for that is "origin" and "beginning" and both are synonymous with the words Conception and Inception for good reason. Biologically, the new organism is originated at conception. Even Planned Parenthood acknowledges this as biological fact.
What date is on everyone's birth certificate? The date on which they were conceived? The date on which the zygote lodged in the uterine wall? The date in the course of their fetal existence that they were X weeks into it? The date upon which they emerged from the womb?
That is a Red Herring to the debate as people / persons have existed for centuries before "birth certificates" were ever invented. And as a matter of fact, some Chinese cultures do in fact recognize conception as a person's birth date instead of the day they emerged from the womb.
Neither has anything to do with whether or not the child is a human being and as such should be recognized as a person.
If one is born into family of a monarchy and the queen is pregnant when the king dies, who assumes the throne? It's not the fetus that does so. Why not? Because it's not yet a person; it is a future person. Being a person and a future person are not the same things.
Ummmm. Under that system, whether the child is a born heir to the throne or whether the heir is still in the womb. . . A Regent would be appointed to handle the affairs of the State until the child is old enough to assume the role.
So, this does not support your denials at all.