Indeependent
Diamond Member
- Nov 19, 2013
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Deuteronomy 21:I'm so booooooooooooooooooooored! Penelope!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! I need you to post more stupidity!!!!!!!!!!!
15 Suppose a man has two wives, one whom he loves more than the other, and they both bear him sons, with the firstborn being the child of the less loved wife.
16 In the day he divides his inheritance he must not appoint as firstborn the son of the favorite wife in place of the other wife's son who is actually the firstborn.
17 Rather, he must acknowledge the son of the less loved wife as firstborn and give him the double portion of all he has, for that son is the beginning of his father's procreative power — to him should go the right of the firstborn.
(I guess it doesn't matter since none of them were Jews right? Abraham, Ishmael, Isaac, Jacob, or Moses)
Oh, I get it; you're reading this out of context and thus are concluding that there is no legal mechanism to override the first born, yada, yada, yada.
You are quite mistaken...
Note verse 16, "In the day he divides his inheritance"
Guess what, there's more than 1 way to give away your possessions and "dividing the inheritance" is only 1 of them.
I'm also guessing that in your "many" years of intense OT study, you decided to skip over the story of Avraham sending his servant Eliezer to Laban to find a wife for Yitzchak.
Well, guess what, before Eliezer left on his mission, Avraham explicitly gives Eliezer a document proving that Avraham's possessions have already been transferred over to Yitzchak.
Avraham, after Yitzchak has legal possession of everything that WAS Avrahams, continues to live on for many more years supported by his loving son Yitzchak.
There is thus ZERO left in Avraham's possession for Ishmael to inherit.
Any more questions?
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