What are young Israelis taught about Jesus?

I think you are looking at it backwards. If the text makes a claim which is not in line with extant Jewish law, maybe the text is flat out wrong.
Yes that is a possibility.
I'm not starting with any belief that the events as described took place so I don't need to find a way to explain the problems. The law exists. It existed before Jesus' time.
Right but his accusers apparently had decided that his actions warranted execution, the text does not state that this was because he blasphemed though.
what authorities? You have yet to cite a Jewish authority who says that blasphemy includes the words and actions described in the gospels.
No I do not, I agree the βλασφημία term does not carry the death penalty, he is accused of that in addition to the other thinhgs he's accused of.
That is certainly a possibility, yes. Are you suggesting that even though Jewish law existed, people at the time somehow all ignored it when making religious judicial statements?
No, are you saying their interpretation must have been identical to yours today?
But the way that is explained, it also wouldn't make him liable to a death penalty under Jewish law. This is just more evidence that the writers were unfamiliar with Jewish jurisprudence.
That's a matter of interpretation it seems to me. The penalty for violating the sabbath is death is very clear it seems from Numbers 15:

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I don't know what the Greek word actually refers to or means.
You can look at the source Hebrew used for the Septuagint.
I'm saying, unequivocally, that the English word/concept "blasphemy" is not synonymous with the Jewish legal concept of blasphemy, so calling it blasphemy is misleading when considering Jewish law. Call it something else that violates Jewish law if you or anyone wants to label his actions as counter the Jewish authorities. It just isn't blasphemy.
Right, I don't disagree with that. What I see is that you are interpreting the NT text as if it says "because Jesus blasphemed he must be executed" but that is not stated anyhere in the New Testament, that association is just an inference.

The accusation of blasphemy is made after his execution had already been called for specifically in John 5:18 where he is accused of breaking the Sabbath, which we know (from Numbers 15) does carry the death penalty.

Its noteworthy too that the text records exactly six distinct perceived violations of the sabbath.
 
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Right but his accusers apparently had decided that his actions warranted execution, the text does not state that this was because he blasphemed though.
OK, but the legal process as described (for ALL of Jesus' actions) would not merit a death penalty under Jewish law.
No, are you saying their interpretation must have been identical to yours today?
It isn't interpretation. It is black letter Jewish law which existed already at the time.
That's a matter of interpretation it seems to me. The penalty for violating the sabbath is death it seems from Numbers 15:

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Except that Judaism doesn't exist by dint of the written text alone. The oral law was an essential part of Jewish understanding (in fact, it is what separated the Pharisees from the Saduccees) and the legal process as described in the oral law is completely absent from the gospel stories.
Right, I don't disagree with that. What I see is that you are interpreting the NT text as if it says "because Jesus blasphemed he must be executed" but that is not stated anyhere in the New Testament.
OK, but I'm saying that under Jewish law, he didn't even "blaspheme" and that none of his actions merit a death penalty, and the legal process in the gospels is woefully inaccurate.
The accusation of blasphemy is made after his execution had already been called for specifically in John 5:18 where he is accused of breaking the Sabbath, which we know (from Numbers 15) does carry the death penalty.
Except that the process of finding someone guilty requires a number of other steps (warnings, witnesses, a protracted trial etc) and all of that is absent from the text.
 
OK, but the legal process as described (for ALL of Jesus' actions) would not merit a death penalty under Jewish law.
To whom do we look? the Pharisees or the Saducees? Clearly each saw the other as somehow wrong. The Pharisees are quoted as declaring the penalty for Sabbath breaking is death, that's what it records. That you cannot reconcile that with your own current beliefs about what they believed does not prove that the text is an untrustworthy record of events.
It isn't interpretation. It is black letter Jewish law which existed already at the time.
What "black letter Jewish law" are you referring to? Numbers 15?
Except that Judaism doesn't exist by dint of the written text alone. The oral law was an essential part of Jewish understanding (in fact, it is what separated the Pharisees from the Saduccees) and the legal process as described in the oral law is completely absent from the gospel stories.
The Tanakh (If that's the correct term for my Bibles's Old Testament) makes no mention of any "oral law". The Saducees refused to acknowledge this "oral law" (as you know). Furthermore you have no idea what it said exactly because you have no record of it as it existed at the time of Jesus.

The first written text of this "oral law" was penned after 70 AD, making claims about what it did and didn't say before that time is speculation.

All accusations of Sabbath breaking were made by the Pharisees, Jesus accused the Pharisees of teaching the traditions of men as doctrine, right there he is telling them that their traditions (oral law) is not actually doctrine.

There is also a multitude of preserved literature representing different oral traditions. Some of these seem to make it clear that Sabbath violating carried the death penalty. I know your are far better informed here than I, but I think I'm right in saying there is considerable scope for uncertainty as to what exactly the Paharisees regarded as oral law at the time of Jesus.

Remember, there are Jews out there who sometimes pay non-Jews to operate electrical devices for them in their homes, I suspect Jesus was not impressed with such ludicrous thinking.
OK, but I'm saying that under Jewish law, he didn't even "blaspheme" and that none of his actions merit a death penalty, and the legal process in the gospels is woefully inaccurate.
Violating the sabbath does! How can you make a case for your claim that violation of the Sabbath at the time of Jesus did not carry the death penalty?
Except that the process of finding someone guilty requires a number of other steps (warnings, witnesses, a protracted trial etc) and all of that is absent from the text.
Yes it did, but Jesus accused his detractors of hypocrisy on several occasions. You seem to be assuming these people were flawless human being, incapable of lying, incapable of hate, incapable of prejudice - these are the very kinds of human flaws that Jesus faced from his fellow Jews.
 
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To whom do we look? the Pharisees or the Saducees? Clearly each saw the other as somehow wrong.
Very true. But the text seems to lay things at the feet of the Pharisees. If you want to say that the Jewish leaders of the time were Saduccees (which is accurate as it relates to the composition of the sanhedrin at the time) then that would be fine and would resolve one prolematic element.
The Pharisees are quoted as declaring the penalty for Sabbath breaking is death, that's what it records.
That's what the author wrote. Whether that's a record of what anyone actually said is highly doubtful because it flies in the face of established Jewish law.
That you cannot reconcile that with your own current beliefs about what they believed does not prove that the text is an untrustworthy record of events.
My current understanding of Jewish law relies on exactly what they believed then. That's how Judaism works. Our codes of law aren't new and our practice isn't some interpretation, but an application of known law. Trying to reduce it by calling it an opinion is simply wrong.
What "black letter Jewish law" are you referring to? Numbers 15?
Some is explained here Shomrei Emunah: Not to the Right or Left: Parashat Shoftim (5779 – 2019)

and some is in Lev 24:16
The Tanakh (If that's the correct term for my Bibles's Old Testament) makes no mention of any "oral law".
Actually it does. Deut 12:21 references laws taught which are not recorded in the written text.
The Saducees refused to acknowledge this "oral law" (as you know). Furthermore you have no idea what it said exactly because you have no record of it as it existed at the time of Jesus.
we have the talmud which is a written down version of the oral law. The talmud records conversations and legal positions which occurred before Jesus was born.
The first written text of this "oral law" was penned after 70 AD, making claims about what it did and didn't say before that time is speculation.
I'm not sure where you get this from, nor do I know how you mean "penned."
All accusations of Sabbath breaking were made by the Pharisees, Jesus accused the Pharisees of teaching the traditions of men as doctrine, right there he is telling them that their traditions (oral law) is not actually doctrine.
No he's not. He's putting his opinion regarding Jewish law above the official position. He cites the talmud in a number of places and actually says to follow pharisaic teaching which would include the oral law.
There is also a multitude of preserved literature representing different oral traditions. Some of these seem to make it clear that Sabbath violating carried the death penalty.
The question isn't whether there is a death penalty for breaking the sabbath but if the process and application of the law as expected by Jewish writing would have called forth a death penalty based on what the gospels record.
Remember, there are Jews out there who sometimes pay non-Jews to operate electrical devices for them in their homes, I suspect Jesus was not impressed with such ludicrous thinking.
that's not actually allowed. You are, again, taking a complicated idea within Jewish law and over simplifying it. In that world of oversimplification, you are drawing conclusions. But the premises are more complex.
Violating the sabbath does! How can you make a case for your claim that violation of the Sabbath at the time of Jesus did not carry the death penalty?
Because the judicial process would have required 2 interrogated witnesses, a formal warning, a repeated offense, and more witnesses.
Yes it did, but Jesus accused his detractors of hypocrisy on several occasions. You seem to be assuming these people were flawless human being, incapable of lying, incapable of hate, incapable of prejudice - these are the very kinds of human flaws that Jesus faced from his fellow Jews.
Jesus was very clear about what people were doing wrong -- he felt that the pharisees taught the correct way to be but were not practicing what they preached. So if you want to say that the pharisees' behavior was problematic, that's great. But that doesn't change Jewish law.
 
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Very true. But the text seems to lay things at the feet of the Pharisees. If you want to say that the Jewish leaders of the time were Saduccees (which is accurate as it relates to the composition of the sanhedrin at the time) then that would be fine and would resolve one prolematic element.
So you just pick whichever of them represents your current beliefs.
That's what the author wrote. Whether that's a record of what anyone actually said is highly doubtful because
That' true of all ancient literature.
it flies in the face of established Jewish law.
What was the established penalty for sabbath violation at the time of Jesus? Without that information you can't argue anything "flies in the face of established Jewish law". I saw that it was death in Numbers 15, and we know that was established because we have the dead sea scrolls which predate Jesus.
My current understanding of Jewish law relies on exactly what they believed then.
They believed that Jesus should face the death penalty, we have physical evidence for this claim.
That's how Judaism works. Our codes of law aren't new and our practice isn't some interpretation, but an application of known law. Trying to reduce it by calling it an opinion is simply wrong.
May I see evidence of what constituted the oral law as understood by the Pharisees at the time of Jesus?
and Numbers 15.
Actually it does. Deut 12:21 references laws taught which are not recorded in the written text.
Are you referring to commands about animal slaughter? the command about draining blood is stated in Leviticus.
we have the talmud which is a written down version of the oral law. The talmud records conversations and legal positions which occurred before Jesus was born.
The oldest fragment of the Talmud seems to date from about 700 years ago, that's 1300 years after Jesus, moreover there are different talmuds as you well know.
I'm not sure where you get this from, nor do I know how you mean "penned."
Written down, the first Mishnah was written down about 200AD, before that time we have no idea what comprised the "oral law".

Unlike copies of writing that can be (and have proven to be with the NT as a fine example) faithfully propagated over long spans of time, there is no assurance for a remembered body of knowledge.

If human memory alone is sufficient for faithful propagation then you'd have no need of a Torah would you?
No he's not. He's putting his opinion regarding Jewish law above the official position.
If Jesus was who he claimed to be then, the his position was the official position.
He cites the talmud in a number of places and actually says to follow pharisaic teaching which would include the oral law.
The talmud didn't exist at the time of Jesus, it is the written oral law and it was never written down until centuries later. What actually took place is he made statements that we happen to now find written down in the talmud all these years later, not that he "cited the talmud".
The question isn't whether there is a death penalty for breaking the sabbath but if the process and application of the law as expected by Jewish writing would have called forth a death penalty based on what the gospels record.
Are you arguing that it is impossible for the Pharisees to have been corrupt? I don't think that line of argument will carry much weight, so if that's axiomatic for your we might as well stop oir discssuion here.
that's not actually allowed.
People do it, I expressed no view on whether it is "allowed" or not only that it goes on, some Jews do do it.
You are, again, taking a complicated idea within Jewish law and over simplifying it. In that world of oversimplification, you are drawing conclusions. But the premises are more complex.
I stated a fact, some Jews do do this, that's not an over simplification.
Because the judicial process would have required 2 interrogated witnesses, a formal warning, a repeated offense, and more witnesses.
Why would you expect normal conduct in a highly abnormal situation? These people had never seen anything like Jesus, healing people, raising the dead, turning water into wine etc. Their over arching concern was for their own safety, fearing that the growing infleunce Jesus was having on people could lead to their derstruction under Roman rule.
Jesus was very clear about what people were doing wrong -- he felt that the pharisees taught the correct way to be but were not practicing what they preached.
Very good,so why your refusal to accept that they might not have executed their own laws faithfully? if they did indeed fail to practice what they preached then they were imperfect and so your expectation that they pursue a trial in perfect accordance with "the law" undermines your entire argument.
So if you want to say that the pharisees' behavior was problematic, that's great. But that doesn't change Jewish law.
But it does indicate that these men didn't neccesarily adhere to laws, because they didn't practice what they preached.
 
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So you just pick whichever of them represents your current beliefs.
says who? You?
That' true of all ancient literature.
great, so you accept that the gospel text is highly suspect. Perfect.
What was the established penalty for sabbath violation at the time of Jesus?
if the entire legal process was followed, death. If it wasn't, not death.
Without that information you can't argue anything "flies in the face of established Jewish law". I saw that it was death in Numbers 15, and we know that was established because we have the dead sea scrolls which predate Jesus.
You saw something in a written text and you believe that Judaism existed in a textual vacuum. It didn't. The oral law existed as well. Otherwise, the Saduccees would have nothing to reject.
They believed that Jesus should face the death penalty, we have physical evidence for this claim.
No, we have a suspect written text which is full of errors.
May I see evidence of what constituted the oral law as understood by the Pharisees at the time of Jesus?
Sure -- start here תלמוד ירושלמי
Are you referring to commands about animal slaughter? the command about draining blood is stated in Leviticus.
but that's not what the verse says. It says that the laws of slaughter were given. But they aren't in the written text.
The oldest fragment of the Talmud seems to date from about 700 years ago, that's 1300 years after Jesus, moreover there are different talmuds as you well know.
there are 2 talmuds, written in 2 different places, based on different conversations and arguments. There is some overlap between the two works. We have an oral law. We had an oral law back then. It was forbidden to be written down and was memorized by sages who pored over each and every word and tested each other. Simply denying that any and all of this happened because there is only a certain aged written text is denying core elements of Judaism. if that's your point, then so be it.
Written down, the first Mishnah was written down about 200AD, before that time we have no idea what comprised the "oral law".
No, YOU don't. Jews do.
Unlike copies of writing that can be (and have proven to be with the NT as a fine example) faithfully propagated over long spans of time, there is no assurance for a remembered body of knowledge.
except the constant checking and rechecking in each generation. But again, you want to deny the existence of an entire body of work.
If human memory alone is sufficient for faithful propagation then you'd have no need of a Torah would you?
God said much the same thing! Good point.
If Jesus was who he claimed to be then, the his position was the official position.
only if you believe his claim to be true. I don't. The Jews at the time didn't. The fact that people, a bit later, decided to believe the claim is immaterial.
The talmud didn't exist at the time of Jesus,
see, that's where you are wrong. The mishna existed as did much of the gemara (though not all)
it is the written oral law and it was never written down until centuries later. What actually took place is he made statements that we happen to now find written down in the talmud all these years later, not that he "cited the talmud".
Since the oral law existed before Jesus' time (as evidenced by his awareness of it -- show me where in the written text, anyone is commanded to wash hands before eating anything; he called it a "tradtion of the elders" so it predated him)
Are you arguing that it is impossible for the Pharisees to have been corrupt? I don't think that line of argument will carry much weight, so if that's axiomatic for your we might as well stop oir discssuion here.
I am saying that the teachings of the pharisees (which Jesus endorsed) were not corrupt. If you want to start with the proposition that the talmud is false and what Jews taught was corrupt, then there is no reason to keep discussing this.
People do it, I expressed no view on whether it is "allowed" or not only that it goes on, some Jews do do it.
but citing it as a Jewish practice as an oversimplified claim is wrong. Jews (if they follow the law) do NOT do what you said. You need to learn the laws so you might see that was appears to be the case isn't exactly as you perceive it.
I stated a fact, some Jews do do this, that's not an over simplification.
Since you don't know the laws, you can't understand that this is an oversimplification. The fact is, no Jew may ask a non Jew to do a forbidden activity for him on the sabbath. That's not new. What Is Amira L'Akum (Asking A Non-Jew To Do “Work” On Shabbos)?
Why would you expect normal conduct in a highly abnormal situation? These people had never seen anything like Jesus, healing people, raising the dead, turning water into wine etc.
they had seen false messianic claimants and other law breakers. The fact that there was a legal process in place was BECAUSE Jews were ready for situations like this. And the Jews had already had a prophet who turned water into blood. There were already prophets who raised people from the dead and healed people.
Very good,so why your refusal to accept that they might not have executed their own laws faithfully?
because the story is told in a text so rife with error that it loses authority to judge. Can I know what Jews did at the time? If I do, it is from actions described by Jewish texts that are consistent with jewish law. If you can accept that the text is problematic (which you did above) then why suddenly assume that in one area, it is accurate?
if they did indeed fail to practice what they preached then they were imperfect and so your expectation that they pursue a trial in perfect accordance with "the law" undermines your entire argument.
Jesus was the one who said that their actions were problematic. I don't recall saying that.
But it does indicate that these men didn't neccesarily adhere to laws, because they didn't practice what they preached.
It only indicates that in the story, someone made that claim. And if it DOES mean that, then all that does is reinforce the existence and authority of the pharisaic teachings (oral law).
 
You wouldn't know one way or the other. You transvestites think life is determined by what colour dress you wear ..... and if someone doesn't wear any dress at all your plumbing begins to leak profusely.

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You don’t have any plumbing. You wear a 💼 bag. You don’t empty it enough; that’s probably why you’re constantly wet with that horrific odor. Bathe more then 😱once every two weeks
 
You wouldn't know one way or the other. You transvestites think life is determined by what colour dress you wear ..... and if someone doesn't wear any dress at all your plumbing begins to

You wouldn't know one way or the other. You transvestites think life is determined by what colour dress you wear ..... and if someone doesn't wear any dress at all your plumbing begins to leak profusely.

View attachment 1247393
Oh… Now I’m a transvestite? There is a big difference between Transgender and transvestite I wouldn’t expect you to know the difference being your so obsessed with your own sexuality(; knowing you don’t have one Since you lost your plumbing, you have to wear a bag Trouble is, you don’t empty it often enough and there is an odor It would also help if you took a shower once in a while
 
Oh… Now I’m a transvestite? There is a big difference between Transgender and transvestite
That is correct. Until you finally get your gazakus whacked off you’ll continue being a transvestite. There is your dilemma. Creepy Joe, Camel Hairless, Tampon Tim, and Big Mike Obomba would have allowed you to join your beloved WAF ”as is”. But Trump might not even allow you to sign up even if you pack your pecker in a box. I'm afraid, you silly boy, that becoming a WAF will forever remain an unfulfilled dream for you.:crybaby: :itsok:
 
15th post
The simple truth is that 107 was another Zionist Fascist hate hoax and you and every other Zionist Fascist Traitor chickens out from doing what 107 claims happened, because like 911

YOU CANNOT "REPEAT THE EXPERIMENT"

which proves it did not happen
Yes yes, and the moon landing was faked! Hey! What am I saying?! The moon is made of Swiss cheese, so how could they even land on it?! Ha ha ha.
 
Yes that is a possibility.

Right but his accusers apparently had decided that his actions warranted execution, the text does not state that this was because he blasphemed though.

No I do not, I agree the βλασφημία term does not carry the death penalty, he is accused of that in addition to the other thinhgs he's accused of.

No, are you saying their interpretation must have been identical to yours today?

That's a matter of interpretation it seems to me. The penalty for violating the sabbath is death is very clear it seems from Numbers 15:

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You can look at the source Hebrew used for the Septuagint.

Right, I don't disagree with that. What I see is that you are interpreting the NT text as if it says "because Jesus blasphemed he must be executed" but that is not stated anyhere in the New Testament, that association is just an inference.

The accusation of blasphemy is made after his execution had already been called for specifically in John 5:18 where he is accused of breaking the Sabbath, which we know (from Numbers 15) does carry the death penalty.

Its noteworthy too that the text records exactly six distinct perceived violations of the sabbath.
Zzzzz, do you actually think people would actually bother reading all that gibberish written by an ignorant moron?! You really need to get over yourself, you’re just a stupid know-nothing undereducated FOOL!
 
That is correct. Until you finally get your gazakus whacked off you’ll continue being a transvestite. There is your dilemma. Creepy Joe, Camel Hairless, Tampon Tim, and Big Mike Obomba would have allowed you to join your beloved WAF ”as is”. But Trump might not even allow you to sign up even if you pack your pecker in a box. I'm afraid, you silly boy, that becoming a WAF will forever remain an unfulfilled dream for you.:crybaby: :itsok:
You got yours wacked off. How does it feel to wear a bag? Does your boy toy help you empty it? I hope he wears gloves
 
You got yours wacked off. How does it feel to wear a bag? Does your boy toy help you empty it? I hope he wears gloves
:nono: Such a filthy mouth you have. I have been giving you encouragement and trying to help you but all you do is mean mouth in the most disgusting manner possible. Typical really. You transvestites have such a foul tendency. I’ve read that it has to do with your own self disgust. It’s like you hate yourself but rather than doing something nice you just slander others.
Tsk, tsk! :spank:
 

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