except that it isn't my interpretation. It is Jewish law. Unless you can show me a source in Jewish law that defines blasphemy as inclusive of Jesus' actions, then my statement stands (speaking as someone who has actually studied Jewish law).
The text records that his Jewish accusers reffered to him commiting
βλασφημία (that same word as I'm sure you know, does also appear in the Septuagint).
Those accusers then announce that this warrants death, that is,
their interpretation was that he had acted in such a way that death was the penalty.
It is immaterial whether the law actually defines the term and associates a death penalty with it, the important thing is that the events took place, he was accused (rightly or wrongly) and they did call for execution.
Or maybe, show me the writings of another Orthodox rabbi who gives sources showing how what Jesus said/did IS included in the concept of blasphemy under Jewish law.
All your position amounts to is that you disagree with those authorities, they regarded Jesus' words/actions as warranting the death penalty whereas you do not.
Do you seek to argue that therefore the events recorded did not take place because the Jewish accusers are incapable of actually acting as described in the New Testament?
Jesus was accused of more than just blasphemy too, the text nowhere states that Jesus must die
because he blasphemed, he was accused of violating the Sabbath day for example, that is the first point in the timeline where his execution is called for.