CrusaderFrank
Diamond Member
- May 20, 2009
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I'm informed that much of went to European national bank accounts.
I am further informed (although I have never confirmed this fact) that it was sold at a serious discount, too.
Anybody have a credible source to confirm or deny this "fact"?
But that couldn't work - it would expand the money supply, which was actually reduced by 1/3rd.
Gold flowed out of the country in 1931 after European countries started leaving the gold standard. However, much of the money contraction occurred after the failure of the Bank of United States in 1930. Assets to deposits were very low in September of 1930 as people poured money into the banking system after the collapse of the stock market. But after the failure of the Bank of United States - which many Europeans thought was the central bank - deposits began leaving the system indiscriminately. People started putting money in tin cans and mattresses as they withdrew from the banking system, and the ratio of assets to deposits skyrocketed.
If the Fed was supposed to be the lender of last resort, why did it let the Bank of United State fail, especially when the Bank was able to pay out 92 cents on the dollar?