James Everett
Active Member
- Nov 14, 2014
- 771
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Diccombobulated....I have no idea what slavery has to do with the legality of secession either, yet you keep throwing it in the conversation, I can only assume you are attempting to divert from the legal issue, (which is the only relevant issue concerning secession), by introducing slavery in a feeble attempt at gaining the distorted view that Northerners hold some sort of moral superiority, therefore your governments extermination practices against the Native American Indian becomes relevant in the moral discussion that YOU introduced. Stick to the only relevant issue of the legality of secession, and you will not be required to defend your government concerning the Native American Indian. The author of the article which spawned this thread complained that his article was not about the legality of secession, however he introduced it when he falsely charged the Southerners of "insurrection". In doing so he entered the legal question concerning insurrection to which I posted the definition thereof, and gave proof that there was NO insurrection from the Southerners, yet clearly there was an insurrection by Lincoln and the Northerners, as they were in rebellion to the lawful authority of YOUR 1787/1789 U.S. CONstitutions' tenth amendment.Disbo,Slavery was not headed for extinction in the near future.
The slaves of Cuba and Brazil were decades from liberty in 1860.
I wonder how slavery could have ended peacefully? War was inevitable because the slave holders would never have compromised, they held political and economic power. If it were up to Confederates slavery never would have ended, they'd still be claiming the right to fight for their freedom to preserve slavery.
That is a gratuitous asertion backed by nothing more than your attempt to gain a moral superior position, which looking back on what the U.S. government did in its extermination of the Native American Indian, You cannot possibly hold that position.
I have absolutely no idea what Indians have to do with slavery and secession.
Again, you have failed completely to substantiate your premise. There exist no constitutionally legal basis for secession. End of story.
I also apologize to you if in fact I have been posting examples of fact that are above your intellect.
The 1787/1789 U.S. CONstitutional bases is in the Tenth Amendment thereof, which states.....
"The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are reserved to the states respectively, or to the people."
The simple fact that YOUR 1787/1789 U.S. CONstitution enumerates nothing on the subject of secessio, means that it is a POWER reserved to each individual State, again...........
"The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are reserved to the states respectively, or to the people."
Thanks for your post, and I hope this is not beyond your intellect as I have posted it this time around.
James Everett...
You may also find more fact and truth at..... CSAgov.org